Page 1 of 66
EMT FISDAP PARAMEDIC ENTRANCE EXAM PREP GUIDE | 125
PRACTICE QUESTIONS & RATIONALES (2026)
Anatomy, Physiology & Pathophysiology / Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
Exam coverage :-
• Section A (Q1–Q20): EMS operations, scene safety, infection
control, incident command, and stress management.
• Section B (Q21–Q45): Anatomy, physiology, medical
terminology, body planes, and GCS.
• Section C (Q46–Q70): Patient assessment, airway
management, CPR, AED, and oxygen therapy.
• Section D (Q71–Q95): Cardiovascular and respiratory
emergencies, including MI, pulmonary edema, and asthma.
• Section E (Q96–Q110): Medical emergencies, including
diabetes, seizures, stroke, and anaphylaxis.
• Section F (Q111–Q125): Trauma emergencies, including
fractures, hemorrhage, shock, and spinal injuries.
SECTION A: EMS OPERATIONS & SAFETY (Q1–Q20)
, Page 2 of 66
1. The first priority of an Emergency Medical Responder should
be:
A) Assessing the patient
B) Scene safety
C) Obtaining vital signs
D) Calling for additional resources
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Scene safety
RATIONALE: Option B is correct because scene safety is always
the first priority before any patient care can begin. Option A is
incorrect because patient assessment comes after ensuring the
scene is safe. Option C is incorrect because vital signs are
obtained after scene safety is established. Option D is incorrect
because calling for resources may occur but scene safety takes
precedence.
2. What landmark 1966 federal report exposed deficiencies in
prehospital trauma care and is credited with launching the
modernization of the EMS system in the United States?
A) The Emergency Medical Services Systems Act
B) The Flexner Report on Medical Education
C) Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of
Modern Society
D) Healthy People: The Surgeon General's Report
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Accidental Death and Disability: The
Neglected Disease of Modern Society
RATIONALE: Option C is correct because the 1966 National
Academy of Sciences paper documented preventable deaths
caused by inadequate prehospital care, triggering federal EMS
, Page 3 of 66
funding and standardization. Option A is incorrect because this
was the 1973 legislation that followed. Option B is incorrect
because the Flexner Report evaluated physician education
decades earlier. Option D is incorrect because this is a modern
public health agenda.
3. What is the purpose of Quality Improvement (QI) in EMS?
A) To punish staff for mistakes
B) To identify aspects of the system that could be improved
C) To replace outdated equipment
D) To hire new personnel
CORRECT ANSWER: B) To identify aspects of the system that
could be improved
RATIONALE: Option B is correct because QI is a systematic
process used to improve patient care and operational efficiency
by identifying gaps, errors, or inefficiencies. Option A is
incorrect because QI is not disciplinary. Option C is incorrect
because equipment replacement is an outcome of QI, not its
purpose. Option D is incorrect because hiring is separate from
QI.
4. Which of the following is the highest priority during the
primary survey of a trauma patient?
A) Assessing for disability
B) Obtaining a full set of vital signs
C) Airway management with cervical spine control
D) Exposing the patient to identify all injuries
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Airway management with cervical
spine control
, Page 4 of 66
RATIONALE: Option C is correct because the primary survey
follows the ABCDE approach, with Airway and cervical spine
control as the highest priority. Option A is incorrect because
disability is assessed after ABC. Option B is incorrect because
vital signs are obtained after the primary survey. Option D is
incorrect because exposure occurs after ABC.
5. Personal protective equipment (PPE) for an EMR should
include:
A) A mask, eye protection, and gloves
B) Only gloves
C) Only a mask
D) Gloves and a gown
CORRECT ANSWER: A) A mask, eye protection, and gloves
RATIONALE: Option A is correct because standard PPE
includes gloves, eye protection, and a mask to protect against
bloodborne and airborne pathogens. Option B is incorrect
because gloves alone are insufficient. Option C is incorrect
because a mask alone is insufficient. Option D is incorrect
because eye protection is also required.
6. What is the safest emergency vehicle operator?
A) One who drives with lights and siren at all times
B) One who has a positive attitude and exercises due caution
C) One who speeds to reach the scene quickly
D) One who uses the radio while driving
CORRECT ANSWER: B) One who has a positive attitude and
exercises due caution
EMT FISDAP PARAMEDIC ENTRANCE EXAM PREP GUIDE | 125
PRACTICE QUESTIONS & RATIONALES (2026)
Anatomy, Physiology & Pathophysiology / Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
Exam coverage :-
• Section A (Q1–Q20): EMS operations, scene safety, infection
control, incident command, and stress management.
• Section B (Q21–Q45): Anatomy, physiology, medical
terminology, body planes, and GCS.
• Section C (Q46–Q70): Patient assessment, airway
management, CPR, AED, and oxygen therapy.
• Section D (Q71–Q95): Cardiovascular and respiratory
emergencies, including MI, pulmonary edema, and asthma.
• Section E (Q96–Q110): Medical emergencies, including
diabetes, seizures, stroke, and anaphylaxis.
• Section F (Q111–Q125): Trauma emergencies, including
fractures, hemorrhage, shock, and spinal injuries.
SECTION A: EMS OPERATIONS & SAFETY (Q1–Q20)
, Page 2 of 66
1. The first priority of an Emergency Medical Responder should
be:
A) Assessing the patient
B) Scene safety
C) Obtaining vital signs
D) Calling for additional resources
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Scene safety
RATIONALE: Option B is correct because scene safety is always
the first priority before any patient care can begin. Option A is
incorrect because patient assessment comes after ensuring the
scene is safe. Option C is incorrect because vital signs are
obtained after scene safety is established. Option D is incorrect
because calling for resources may occur but scene safety takes
precedence.
2. What landmark 1966 federal report exposed deficiencies in
prehospital trauma care and is credited with launching the
modernization of the EMS system in the United States?
A) The Emergency Medical Services Systems Act
B) The Flexner Report on Medical Education
C) Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of
Modern Society
D) Healthy People: The Surgeon General's Report
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Accidental Death and Disability: The
Neglected Disease of Modern Society
RATIONALE: Option C is correct because the 1966 National
Academy of Sciences paper documented preventable deaths
caused by inadequate prehospital care, triggering federal EMS
, Page 3 of 66
funding and standardization. Option A is incorrect because this
was the 1973 legislation that followed. Option B is incorrect
because the Flexner Report evaluated physician education
decades earlier. Option D is incorrect because this is a modern
public health agenda.
3. What is the purpose of Quality Improvement (QI) in EMS?
A) To punish staff for mistakes
B) To identify aspects of the system that could be improved
C) To replace outdated equipment
D) To hire new personnel
CORRECT ANSWER: B) To identify aspects of the system that
could be improved
RATIONALE: Option B is correct because QI is a systematic
process used to improve patient care and operational efficiency
by identifying gaps, errors, or inefficiencies. Option A is
incorrect because QI is not disciplinary. Option C is incorrect
because equipment replacement is an outcome of QI, not its
purpose. Option D is incorrect because hiring is separate from
QI.
4. Which of the following is the highest priority during the
primary survey of a trauma patient?
A) Assessing for disability
B) Obtaining a full set of vital signs
C) Airway management with cervical spine control
D) Exposing the patient to identify all injuries
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Airway management with cervical
spine control
, Page 4 of 66
RATIONALE: Option C is correct because the primary survey
follows the ABCDE approach, with Airway and cervical spine
control as the highest priority. Option A is incorrect because
disability is assessed after ABC. Option B is incorrect because
vital signs are obtained after the primary survey. Option D is
incorrect because exposure occurs after ABC.
5. Personal protective equipment (PPE) for an EMR should
include:
A) A mask, eye protection, and gloves
B) Only gloves
C) Only a mask
D) Gloves and a gown
CORRECT ANSWER: A) A mask, eye protection, and gloves
RATIONALE: Option A is correct because standard PPE
includes gloves, eye protection, and a mask to protect against
bloodborne and airborne pathogens. Option B is incorrect
because gloves alone are insufficient. Option C is incorrect
because a mask alone is insufficient. Option D is incorrect
because eye protection is also required.
6. What is the safest emergency vehicle operator?
A) One who drives with lights and siren at all times
B) One who has a positive attitude and exercises due caution
C) One who speeds to reach the scene quickly
D) One who uses the radio while driving
CORRECT ANSWER: B) One who has a positive attitude and
exercises due caution
