A+ VERIFIED
PHYSICAL THERAPIST ASSISTANT · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
PTA BOARD EXAM (PHYSICAL THERAPIST
ASSISTANT) 2026/2027 — Complete
Official Exam
150 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Musculoskeletal System
02 Neuromuscular & Nervous System
03 Cardiovascular, Pulmonary & Lymphatic Systems
04 Integumentary System & Other Systems
05 Equipment, Devices & Modalities
06 Safety, Professionalism & Data Collection
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in physical therapist assistant practice — from musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, cardiovascular, pulmonary, and
integumentary systems to equipment, devices, modalities, safety, professionalism, and data collection. This original study bank targets
application and analysis skills for the NPTE-PTA board exam, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an
institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
75% Advanced (Licensure) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Musculoskeletal System
Q1. A 48-year-old office worker reports gradual onset of lateral elbow pain that worsens with gripping and wrist extension against
resistance. Palpation reproduces tenderness over the common extensor origin. The supervising PT has established a plan of care
focused on progressive loading. Which intervention is most consistent with current evidence for this presentation?
A. Complete immobilization in a wrist cock-up splint for six weeks before any loading.
B. High-volume passive stretching of the wrist flexors only.
C. Immediate corticosteroid injection administered by the PTA.
D. Eccentric and concentric wrist-extensor strengthening progressed according to symptom response.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Lateral elbow tendinopathy responds best to progressive tendon-loading programs that include both eccentric and concentric components.
Immobilization alone is outdated, and PTAs do not administer injections.
Q2. A patient status-post ACL reconstruction at 8 weeks is progressing well with closed-chain exercises. The PT has cleared the
patient for light plyometric activity. During a session the PTA observes increased tibial translation during a single-leg hop. What is
the most appropriate immediate action?
A. Continue the drill because the patient is within the planned timeline.
B. Stop the hop drill, document the finding, and communicate with the supervising PT before progressing further.
C. Increase the intensity of hops to improve proprioception more quickly.
D. Apply a functional brace and proceed without further consultation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
New or increased joint laxity during higher-level activity must be reported to the supervising PT. The PTA should not independently advance
intensity when an unexpected impairment appears.
Q3. A 65-year-old with moderate knee osteoarthritis reports morning stiffness lasting 20 minutes and pain that improves with light
activity but increases after prolonged standing. The plan of care includes aquatic therapy. Which aquatic exercise parameter is most
appropriate for initial sessions?
A. Deep-water running at high intensity for 30 continuous minutes.
B. Walking and gentle range-of-motion activities in chest-deep water to reduce joint loading.
C. Full-weight-bearing plyometrics on the pool steps.
D. Complete non-weight-bearing flotation only with no active movement.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Chest-deep water unloads the knee while allowing functional movement. High-intensity deep-water running or land-like plyometrics are too
aggressive for initial management of moderate OA.
Q4. A patient with adhesive capsulitis is in the frozen stage. The PT plan emphasizes restoring external rotation and abduction.
Which mobilization technique performed by the PTA is most consistent with restoring external rotation?
A. Posterior glides only, because external rotation is purely a posterior motion.
B. Distraction combined with maximal end-range force regardless of pain.
C. Anterior and inferior glenohumeral glides within the available range.
D. Scapular mobilization exclusively, ignoring the glenohumeral joint.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
External rotation of the glenohumeral joint is facilitated by anterior and inferior glides according to convex-on-concave arthrokinematics.
Force must remain within the patient's tolerance and the established plan.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, SECTION 1: Musculoskeletal System
Q5. A 22-year-old soccer player sustained a grade II lateral ankle sprain 10 days ago. Edema is mild and the patient can bear
weight with minimal pain. The PT has progressed the patient to proprioceptive training. Which activity is most appropriate at this
stage?
A. Immediate return to cutting drills on the field.
B. Complete non-weight-bearing for another two weeks.
C. Aggressive forced inversion stretching into the painful range.
D. Single-leg balance on a firm surface with eyes open, progressed to unstable surfaces as control improves.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Early protected proprioceptive training on stable surfaces is evidence-based for lateral ankle sprains once weight-bearing is tolerated.
Cutting drills and forced painful stretching are premature.
Q6. A patient presents with mechanical low-back pain that centralizes with repeated extension and peripheralizes with flexion. The
PT has directed a directional-preference approach. Which intervention should the PTA emphasize?
A. Prolonged flexion postures and Williams flexion exercises as the primary strategy.
B. Repeated prone press-ups and standing extension within symptom response guidelines.
C. Complete bed rest until all symptoms resolve.
D. High-velocity manipulation performed independently by the PTA.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A directional preference for extension indicates that extension-based movements that centralize symptoms should be prioritized.
Flexion-biased programs would be contraindicated for this presentation.
Q7. A 70-year-old woman with osteoporosis is referred for balance and strengthening after a vertebral compression fracture that is
now stable. Which resistance exercise modification is most appropriate?
A. Perform aggressive spinal flexion exercises to improve mobility.
B. Use only upper-extremity exercises and avoid any lower-extremity work.
C. Emphasize hip and back extensor strengthening while avoiding deep trunk flexion and high-impact loading.
D. Apply maximal axial loading through the spine during all closed-chain activities.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Patients with osteoporosis benefit from extensor strengthening and balance work while avoiding excessive flexion and high-impact forces
that increase fracture risk.
Q8. A patient recovering from rotator-cuff repair at 12 weeks is cleared for progressive strengthening. The PTA notes compensatory
scapular hiking during resisted elevation. What is the best immediate response?
A. Increase resistance to fatigue the upper trapezius and eliminate the hike.
B. Ignore the compensation because the patient is within the expected timeline.
C. Discontinue all elevation exercises permanently.
D. Reduce the resistance and cue scapular control; document and discuss with the PT if compensation persists.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Scapular substitution indicates the load exceeds the patient's current motor control. Reducing demand and reinforcing proper mechanics is
the appropriate PTA response within the plan of care.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
, SECTION 1: Musculoskeletal System
Q9. A 55-year-old with chronic plantar fasciopathy has failed a period of relative rest and stretching. The PT has ordered a
progressive loading program. Which exercise is most evidence-supported for this condition?
A. High-load strength training of the plantar flexors performed with the toes extended on a step.
B. Complete non-weight-bearing for an additional eight weeks.
C. Only passive night-splint use without any loading.
D. Repeated maximal dorsiflexion stretches held for less than 5 seconds.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
High-load strength training that loads the plantar fascia and intrinsic foot muscles has shown superior outcomes compared with stretching
alone for chronic plantar fasciopathy.
Q10. A patient status-post total hip arthroplasty via posterior approach is on day 3 post-op. The PT has instructed adherence to
posterior hip precautions. Which movement must the PTA prevent during bed mobility and transfers?
A. Hip extension beyond neutral with external rotation.
B. Any active quadriceps contraction.
C. Hip flexion beyond 90 degrees combined with internal rotation and adduction.
D. Ankle pumps performed in supine.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Posterior approach precautions typically restrict flexion >90°, internal rotation, and adduction past midline to protect the healing posterior
capsule and reduce dislocation risk.
Q11. A 30-year-old with a recent meniscal repair is restricted to partial weight-bearing for 4 weeks. During gait training the PTA
notices the patient is fully loading the surgical limb. What is the correct action?
A. Allow full weight-bearing because the patient appears comfortable.
B. Re-instruct proper weight-bearing limits, provide feedback, and document the deviation.
C. Advance the patient to jogging because early loading improves outcomes.
D. Apply a continuous passive motion device immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Adherence to the surgeon's and PT's weight-bearing restrictions is essential after meniscal repair. The PTA must correct and document any
deviation.
Q12. A patient with patellofemoral pain demonstrates dynamic knee valgus during a single-leg squat. The PT plan includes
neuromuscular re-education. Which cueing strategy is most effective initially?
A. Encouraging the patient to collapse into valgus to strengthen the medial structures.
B. Verbal and visual cues to maintain knee alignment over the second toe while controlling hip and trunk position.
C. Focusing exclusively on ankle mobility without addressing the knee or hip.
D. Applying maximal resistance to the lateral knee throughout the squat.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Correcting dynamic valgus requires coordinated control of the hip, knee, and trunk. Targeted cueing of alignment is a standard
neuromuscular intervention.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
PHYSICAL THERAPIST ASSISTANT · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
PTA BOARD EXAM (PHYSICAL THERAPIST
ASSISTANT) 2026/2027 — Complete
Official Exam
150 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Musculoskeletal System
02 Neuromuscular & Nervous System
03 Cardiovascular, Pulmonary & Lymphatic Systems
04 Integumentary System & Other Systems
05 Equipment, Devices & Modalities
06 Safety, Professionalism & Data Collection
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in physical therapist assistant practice — from musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, cardiovascular, pulmonary, and
integumentary systems to equipment, devices, modalities, safety, professionalism, and data collection. This original study bank targets
application and analysis skills for the NPTE-PTA board exam, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an
institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
75% Advanced (Licensure) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Musculoskeletal System
Q1. A 48-year-old office worker reports gradual onset of lateral elbow pain that worsens with gripping and wrist extension against
resistance. Palpation reproduces tenderness over the common extensor origin. The supervising PT has established a plan of care
focused on progressive loading. Which intervention is most consistent with current evidence for this presentation?
A. Complete immobilization in a wrist cock-up splint for six weeks before any loading.
B. High-volume passive stretching of the wrist flexors only.
C. Immediate corticosteroid injection administered by the PTA.
D. Eccentric and concentric wrist-extensor strengthening progressed according to symptom response.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Lateral elbow tendinopathy responds best to progressive tendon-loading programs that include both eccentric and concentric components.
Immobilization alone is outdated, and PTAs do not administer injections.
Q2. A patient status-post ACL reconstruction at 8 weeks is progressing well with closed-chain exercises. The PT has cleared the
patient for light plyometric activity. During a session the PTA observes increased tibial translation during a single-leg hop. What is
the most appropriate immediate action?
A. Continue the drill because the patient is within the planned timeline.
B. Stop the hop drill, document the finding, and communicate with the supervising PT before progressing further.
C. Increase the intensity of hops to improve proprioception more quickly.
D. Apply a functional brace and proceed without further consultation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
New or increased joint laxity during higher-level activity must be reported to the supervising PT. The PTA should not independently advance
intensity when an unexpected impairment appears.
Q3. A 65-year-old with moderate knee osteoarthritis reports morning stiffness lasting 20 minutes and pain that improves with light
activity but increases after prolonged standing. The plan of care includes aquatic therapy. Which aquatic exercise parameter is most
appropriate for initial sessions?
A. Deep-water running at high intensity for 30 continuous minutes.
B. Walking and gentle range-of-motion activities in chest-deep water to reduce joint loading.
C. Full-weight-bearing plyometrics on the pool steps.
D. Complete non-weight-bearing flotation only with no active movement.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Chest-deep water unloads the knee while allowing functional movement. High-intensity deep-water running or land-like plyometrics are too
aggressive for initial management of moderate OA.
Q4. A patient with adhesive capsulitis is in the frozen stage. The PT plan emphasizes restoring external rotation and abduction.
Which mobilization technique performed by the PTA is most consistent with restoring external rotation?
A. Posterior glides only, because external rotation is purely a posterior motion.
B. Distraction combined with maximal end-range force regardless of pain.
C. Anterior and inferior glenohumeral glides within the available range.
D. Scapular mobilization exclusively, ignoring the glenohumeral joint.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
External rotation of the glenohumeral joint is facilitated by anterior and inferior glides according to convex-on-concave arthrokinematics.
Force must remain within the patient's tolerance and the established plan.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, SECTION 1: Musculoskeletal System
Q5. A 22-year-old soccer player sustained a grade II lateral ankle sprain 10 days ago. Edema is mild and the patient can bear
weight with minimal pain. The PT has progressed the patient to proprioceptive training. Which activity is most appropriate at this
stage?
A. Immediate return to cutting drills on the field.
B. Complete non-weight-bearing for another two weeks.
C. Aggressive forced inversion stretching into the painful range.
D. Single-leg balance on a firm surface with eyes open, progressed to unstable surfaces as control improves.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Early protected proprioceptive training on stable surfaces is evidence-based for lateral ankle sprains once weight-bearing is tolerated.
Cutting drills and forced painful stretching are premature.
Q6. A patient presents with mechanical low-back pain that centralizes with repeated extension and peripheralizes with flexion. The
PT has directed a directional-preference approach. Which intervention should the PTA emphasize?
A. Prolonged flexion postures and Williams flexion exercises as the primary strategy.
B. Repeated prone press-ups and standing extension within symptom response guidelines.
C. Complete bed rest until all symptoms resolve.
D. High-velocity manipulation performed independently by the PTA.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A directional preference for extension indicates that extension-based movements that centralize symptoms should be prioritized.
Flexion-biased programs would be contraindicated for this presentation.
Q7. A 70-year-old woman with osteoporosis is referred for balance and strengthening after a vertebral compression fracture that is
now stable. Which resistance exercise modification is most appropriate?
A. Perform aggressive spinal flexion exercises to improve mobility.
B. Use only upper-extremity exercises and avoid any lower-extremity work.
C. Emphasize hip and back extensor strengthening while avoiding deep trunk flexion and high-impact loading.
D. Apply maximal axial loading through the spine during all closed-chain activities.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Patients with osteoporosis benefit from extensor strengthening and balance work while avoiding excessive flexion and high-impact forces
that increase fracture risk.
Q8. A patient recovering from rotator-cuff repair at 12 weeks is cleared for progressive strengthening. The PTA notes compensatory
scapular hiking during resisted elevation. What is the best immediate response?
A. Increase resistance to fatigue the upper trapezius and eliminate the hike.
B. Ignore the compensation because the patient is within the expected timeline.
C. Discontinue all elevation exercises permanently.
D. Reduce the resistance and cue scapular control; document and discuss with the PT if compensation persists.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Scapular substitution indicates the load exceeds the patient's current motor control. Reducing demand and reinforcing proper mechanics is
the appropriate PTA response within the plan of care.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
, SECTION 1: Musculoskeletal System
Q9. A 55-year-old with chronic plantar fasciopathy has failed a period of relative rest and stretching. The PT has ordered a
progressive loading program. Which exercise is most evidence-supported for this condition?
A. High-load strength training of the plantar flexors performed with the toes extended on a step.
B. Complete non-weight-bearing for an additional eight weeks.
C. Only passive night-splint use without any loading.
D. Repeated maximal dorsiflexion stretches held for less than 5 seconds.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
High-load strength training that loads the plantar fascia and intrinsic foot muscles has shown superior outcomes compared with stretching
alone for chronic plantar fasciopathy.
Q10. A patient status-post total hip arthroplasty via posterior approach is on day 3 post-op. The PT has instructed adherence to
posterior hip precautions. Which movement must the PTA prevent during bed mobility and transfers?
A. Hip extension beyond neutral with external rotation.
B. Any active quadriceps contraction.
C. Hip flexion beyond 90 degrees combined with internal rotation and adduction.
D. Ankle pumps performed in supine.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Posterior approach precautions typically restrict flexion >90°, internal rotation, and adduction past midline to protect the healing posterior
capsule and reduce dislocation risk.
Q11. A 30-year-old with a recent meniscal repair is restricted to partial weight-bearing for 4 weeks. During gait training the PTA
notices the patient is fully loading the surgical limb. What is the correct action?
A. Allow full weight-bearing because the patient appears comfortable.
B. Re-instruct proper weight-bearing limits, provide feedback, and document the deviation.
C. Advance the patient to jogging because early loading improves outcomes.
D. Apply a continuous passive motion device immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Adherence to the surgeon's and PT's weight-bearing restrictions is essential after meniscal repair. The PTA must correct and document any
deviation.
Q12. A patient with patellofemoral pain demonstrates dynamic knee valgus during a single-leg squat. The PT plan includes
neuromuscular re-education. Which cueing strategy is most effective initially?
A. Encouraging the patient to collapse into valgus to strengthen the medial structures.
B. Verbal and visual cues to maintain knee alignment over the second toe while controlling hip and trunk position.
C. Focusing exclusively on ankle mobility without addressing the knee or hip.
D. Applying maximal resistance to the lateral knee throughout the squat.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Correcting dynamic valgus requires coordinated control of the hip, knee, and trunk. Targeted cueing of alignment is a standard
neuromuscular intervention.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
