NUR 104 HESI FOUNDATIONS NURSING EXAM V2 AND
PRACTICE 2026/2027 - QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+
GRADED
145 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 104 HESI FOUNDATIONS NURSING EXAM V2 AND PRACTICE 2026/2027 - QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 145
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 145 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 104 HESI Foundations Nursing V2 AND 2026/2027 AND 100 Detailed
Rationales PASS Guaranteed A Nursing Foundations / HESI Exit-style Comprehensive Assessment
Undergraduate YEAR 2 Foundations OF Nursing -calibrated TO R1 University Rigor
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
NUR 104 HESI Foundations 1-25 Prescribed, Seconds, Receiving, Finding, Continuous
Nursing V2 AND 2026/2027
AND 100 Detailed Rationales
PASS Guaranteed A Nursing
Foundations / HESI Exit-style
Comprehensive Assessment
Undergraduate YEAR 2
Foundations OF Nursing
-calibrated TO R1 University
Rigor
Finding 26-50 Receiving, First, Nursing, Indicates, Reports
Indicates 51-75 Anticipate, Heart, Digoxin, Finding, Client S
Receiving 76-100 Finding, Prescribed, Indicates, Seconds, Immediate
Seconds 101-125 Prescribed, Indicates, Nursing, Intervention, Finding
Continuous 126-145 Receiving, Seconds, Finding, Intervention, Prescribed
TOTAL 145 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - NUR 104 HESI Foundations Nursing V2 AND
2026/2027 AND 100 Detailed Rationales PASS Guaranteed A
Nursing Foundations / HESI Exit-style Comprehensive
Assessment Undergraduate YEAR 2 Foundations OF
Nursing -calibrated TO R1 University Rigor
Q1.
A client receiving continuous IV heparin at 18 units/kg/hr has an aPTT of 96 seconds
(therapeutic range 60-80 seconds). The provider is unavailable. Which action should the
nurse take FIRST?
A. Continue the infusion and recheck aPTT B. Stop the infusion and prepare to
in 6 hours. administer protamine sulfate.
C. Reduce the infusion rate by half and D. Administer vitamin K subcutaneously and
notify the provider. document the finding.
Correct: B - Stop the infusion and prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
Rationale:An aPTT of 96 seconds exceeds the therapeutic range and signals
supratherapeutic anticoagulation with bleeding risk; the nurse must stop the infusion
immediately and prepare the antidote (protamine sulfate). Reducing the rate delays reversal
and is unsafe without provider order; vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin; continuing the
infusion risks hemorrhage.
Q2.
Which principle best explains why a nurse should assess for rebound hypoglycemia 6-8
hours after administering NPH insulin to a client who is also receiving prednisone?
A. Prednisone potentiates insulin receptor B. NPH peaks at 6-8 hours, and
sensitivity, prolonging NPH action. corticosteroid-induced hyperglycemia masks
the peak until steroid levels decline.
C. Corticosteroids inhibit hepatic D. NPH has an onset of 6-8 hours, so
gluconeogenesis, causing delayed glucose hypoglycemia is unlikely during this window.
elevation.
Correct: B - NPH peaks at 6-8 hours, and corticosteroid-induced hyperglycemia masks the
peak until steroid levels decline.
Rationale:NPH insulin peaks approximately 6–8 hours after administration, and prednisone
elevates blood glucose via gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, which can mask the
insulin peak until steroid effects wane. Prednisone does not potentiate insulin receptors; it
enhances gluconeogenesis rather than inhibiting it; and NPH onset is 1-2 hours, not 6-8
hours.
Page 3
, Section A - NUR 104 HESI Foundations Nursing V2 AND 2026/2027 AND 100 Detailed Rationales PASS Guaranteed A Nursing Foundations /
HESI Exit-style Comprehensive Assessment Undergraduate YEAR 2 Foundations OF Nursing -calibrated TO R1 University Rigor
Q3.
A client with a new colostomy and an ileostomy in the same abdomen reports a sudden
decrease in output from the ileostomy to 50 mL over 12 hours. Which assessment finding
is MOST concerning?
A. Serum sodium 132 mEq/L B. Stoma appears dark purple and dry
C. Blood pressure 108/68 mm Hg D. Urine specific gravity 1.025
Correct: B - Stoma appears dark purple and dry
Rationale:A dark purple, dry stoma indicates ischemia/necrosis, a surgical emergency
requiring immediate provider notification. Low ileostomy output can be normal early
postoperatively; mild hyponatremia and concentrated urine reflect expected fluid shifts, not
the priority concern.
Q4.
Which statement by a newly licensed nurse indicates correct understanding of the legal
doctrine of respondeat superior in nursing practice?
A. The hospital is liable for my negligent B. I am personally liable only if I intentionally
acts performed within the scope of harm a client.
employment.
C. The physician assumes liability for all D. My malpractice insurance replaces the
nursing actions I perform. hospital's liability.
Correct: A - The hospital is liable for my negligent acts performed within the scope of
employment.
Rationale:Respondeat superior holds the employer vicariously liable for employee negligence
occurring within the scope of employment. Personal liability still applies for the nurse's own
negligence regardless of intent; physicians do not assume liability for nursing actions; and
personal insurance supplements rather than replaces employer liability.
Q5.
A client with a chest tube connected to water-seal drainage has continuous bubbling in
the water-seal chamber. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Document the finding as normal and B. Clamp the chest tube near the insertion
continue monitoring. site and notify the provider.
C. Assess the tubing and insertion site for D. Increase suction to -40 cm H2O to clear
an air leak. the system.
Correct: C - Assess the tubing and insertion site for an air leak.
Page 4
PRACTICE 2026/2027 - QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+
GRADED
145 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NUR 104 HESI FOUNDATIONS NURSING EXAM V2 AND PRACTICE 2026/2027 - QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES - PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED. It contains 145
carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 145 Questions
Foundations - Application - NUR 104 HESI Foundations Nursing V2 AND 2026/2027 AND 100 Detailed
Rationales PASS Guaranteed A Nursing Foundations / HESI Exit-style Comprehensive Assessment
Undergraduate YEAR 2 Foundations OF Nursing -calibrated TO R1 University Rigor
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
NUR 104 HESI Foundations 1-25 Prescribed, Seconds, Receiving, Finding, Continuous
Nursing V2 AND 2026/2027
AND 100 Detailed Rationales
PASS Guaranteed A Nursing
Foundations / HESI Exit-style
Comprehensive Assessment
Undergraduate YEAR 2
Foundations OF Nursing
-calibrated TO R1 University
Rigor
Finding 26-50 Receiving, First, Nursing, Indicates, Reports
Indicates 51-75 Anticipate, Heart, Digoxin, Finding, Client S
Receiving 76-100 Finding, Prescribed, Indicates, Seconds, Immediate
Seconds 101-125 Prescribed, Indicates, Nursing, Intervention, Finding
Continuous 126-145 Receiving, Seconds, Finding, Intervention, Prescribed
TOTAL 145 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - NUR 104 HESI Foundations Nursing V2 AND
2026/2027 AND 100 Detailed Rationales PASS Guaranteed A
Nursing Foundations / HESI Exit-style Comprehensive
Assessment Undergraduate YEAR 2 Foundations OF
Nursing -calibrated TO R1 University Rigor
Q1.
A client receiving continuous IV heparin at 18 units/kg/hr has an aPTT of 96 seconds
(therapeutic range 60-80 seconds). The provider is unavailable. Which action should the
nurse take FIRST?
A. Continue the infusion and recheck aPTT B. Stop the infusion and prepare to
in 6 hours. administer protamine sulfate.
C. Reduce the infusion rate by half and D. Administer vitamin K subcutaneously and
notify the provider. document the finding.
Correct: B - Stop the infusion and prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
Rationale:An aPTT of 96 seconds exceeds the therapeutic range and signals
supratherapeutic anticoagulation with bleeding risk; the nurse must stop the infusion
immediately and prepare the antidote (protamine sulfate). Reducing the rate delays reversal
and is unsafe without provider order; vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin; continuing the
infusion risks hemorrhage.
Q2.
Which principle best explains why a nurse should assess for rebound hypoglycemia 6-8
hours after administering NPH insulin to a client who is also receiving prednisone?
A. Prednisone potentiates insulin receptor B. NPH peaks at 6-8 hours, and
sensitivity, prolonging NPH action. corticosteroid-induced hyperglycemia masks
the peak until steroid levels decline.
C. Corticosteroids inhibit hepatic D. NPH has an onset of 6-8 hours, so
gluconeogenesis, causing delayed glucose hypoglycemia is unlikely during this window.
elevation.
Correct: B - NPH peaks at 6-8 hours, and corticosteroid-induced hyperglycemia masks the
peak until steroid levels decline.
Rationale:NPH insulin peaks approximately 6–8 hours after administration, and prednisone
elevates blood glucose via gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, which can mask the
insulin peak until steroid effects wane. Prednisone does not potentiate insulin receptors; it
enhances gluconeogenesis rather than inhibiting it; and NPH onset is 1-2 hours, not 6-8
hours.
Page 3
, Section A - NUR 104 HESI Foundations Nursing V2 AND 2026/2027 AND 100 Detailed Rationales PASS Guaranteed A Nursing Foundations /
HESI Exit-style Comprehensive Assessment Undergraduate YEAR 2 Foundations OF Nursing -calibrated TO R1 University Rigor
Q3.
A client with a new colostomy and an ileostomy in the same abdomen reports a sudden
decrease in output from the ileostomy to 50 mL over 12 hours. Which assessment finding
is MOST concerning?
A. Serum sodium 132 mEq/L B. Stoma appears dark purple and dry
C. Blood pressure 108/68 mm Hg D. Urine specific gravity 1.025
Correct: B - Stoma appears dark purple and dry
Rationale:A dark purple, dry stoma indicates ischemia/necrosis, a surgical emergency
requiring immediate provider notification. Low ileostomy output can be normal early
postoperatively; mild hyponatremia and concentrated urine reflect expected fluid shifts, not
the priority concern.
Q4.
Which statement by a newly licensed nurse indicates correct understanding of the legal
doctrine of respondeat superior in nursing practice?
A. The hospital is liable for my negligent B. I am personally liable only if I intentionally
acts performed within the scope of harm a client.
employment.
C. The physician assumes liability for all D. My malpractice insurance replaces the
nursing actions I perform. hospital's liability.
Correct: A - The hospital is liable for my negligent acts performed within the scope of
employment.
Rationale:Respondeat superior holds the employer vicariously liable for employee negligence
occurring within the scope of employment. Personal liability still applies for the nurse's own
negligence regardless of intent; physicians do not assume liability for nursing actions; and
personal insurance supplements rather than replaces employer liability.
Q5.
A client with a chest tube connected to water-seal drainage has continuous bubbling in
the water-seal chamber. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Document the finding as normal and B. Clamp the chest tube near the insertion
continue monitoring. site and notify the provider.
C. Assess the tubing and insertion site for D. Increase suction to -40 cm H2O to clear
an air leak. the system.
Correct: C - Assess the tubing and insertion site for an air leak.
Page 4
