NUR 212 Exam 1 Preparation Practice Questions & Study Guide | 2026/2027
NUR 212 Exam 1 Preparation
Practice Questions and Study Guide
Aligned with current NUR 212 curriculum standards (2026/2027 update)
100 Questions | 7 Sections | Comprehensive Rationales
How to use this study guide: Each question is followed by four options (A–D). The correct option is marked
[CORRECT]. A detailed rationale follows each question, explaining the underlying nursing reasoning, the relevant
nursing process step, applicable priority frameworks (ABC, Maslow, least restrictive), and the supporting
evidence-based practice. Work through all 100 questions sequentially, then revisit any questions you missed to
consolidate your knowledge.
Section 1: Nursing Process and Clinical Judgment
ADPIE, Critical Thinking, Clinical Reasoning, and Prioritization (Q1–Q15)
Q1: The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient with heart failure. After completing the
admission assessment and formulating a nursing diagnosis of Decreased Cardiac Output, the nurse
develops a plan of care with measurable outcomes. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse
demonstrating?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning [CORRECT]
D. Implementation
Correct Answer: C — Planning
Rationale: Planning is the third step of the nursing process (ADPIE) and involves setting priorities, establishing
measurable SMART outcomes, and developing nursing interventions. Assessment is data collection (step 1), Diagnosis is
formulating the diagnostic statement (step 2), and Implementation is carrying out the interventions (step 4). Because the
nurse is establishing measurable outcomes and a plan of care, this is clearly the Planning phase.
Q2: A patient reports, 'I feel like I can't catch my breath when I lie flat.' Which component of the
nursing diagnosis does this statement represent?
A. Etiology (related factor)
B. Defining characteristic [CORRECT]
C. Goal statement
D. Evaluation criterion
Correct Answer: B — Defining characteristic
Rationale: The patient's verbalized sensation of breathlessness when supine is a defining characteristic—subjective data
reported by the patient that supports the diagnosis (e.g., Activity Intolerance or Ineffective Breathing Pattern). The etiology
(related factor) is the cause, such as decreased cardiac output or fluid overload. Goal statements and evaluation criteria are
written later, during the Planning phase. Subjective data from the patient always serve as defining characteristics.
NUR 212 | Exam 1 Study Guide Page 1
,NUR 212 Exam 1 Preparation Practice Questions & Study Guide | 2026/2027
Q3: The nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving report on four patients. Which patient should
the nurse assess first?
A. A 68-year-old with heart failure whose weight increased by 1 kg overnight
B. A 54-year-old postoperative patient requesting pain medication for surgical-site pain rated 6/10
C. A 72-year-old with COPD whose oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 88% over the last hour
[CORRECT]
D. A 45-year-old with diabetes whose morning blood glucose is 220 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C — A 72-year-old with COPD whose oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 88% over the
last hour
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway-Breathing-Circulation) prioritization framework, the COPD patient's acute oxygen
desaturation to 88% represents an immediate threat to breathing and is the highest priority. The postoperative pain (B) and
elevated glucose (D) are important but stable and non-life-threatening. The heart failure patient's 1-kg overnight weight
gain (A) indicates fluid retention that requires monitoring and intervention, but it does not represent an acute
airway/breathing emergency. ABCs always take priority over fluid status, pain, and glycemic control.
Q4: The nurse is prioritizing care for four patients using Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs. Which
patient need should receive the highest priority?
A. A patient who is anxious about an upcoming diagnostic procedure
B. A patient who recently had a stroke and is unable to feed himself [CORRECT]
C. A patient who is requesting information about discharge medications
D. A patient who is asking for a consultation with the chaplain
Correct Answer: B — A patient who recently had a stroke and is unable to feed himself
Rationale: Maslow's Hierarchy prioritizes physiological needs (food, air, water, elimination) above safety, love/belonging,
esteem, and self-actualization needs. The post-stroke patient's inability to feed himself threatens a fundamental
physiological need (nutrition and hydration) and is the highest priority. Anxiety (A) addresses safety/security needs,
discharge teaching (C) addresses esteem/cognitive needs, and the chaplain request (D) addresses self-actualization/spiritual
needs—all higher-level needs that are addressed only after physiological needs are met.
Q5: A nurse administered an analgesic to a postoperative patient 45 minutes ago. The patient now
reports pain has decreased from 8/10 to 4/10. Which action by the nurse best demonstrates the
Evaluation step of the nursing process?
A. Documenting the medication administered on the MAR
B. Reassessing the patient's pain rating and determining the effectiveness of the intervention
[CORRECT]
C. Developing a new care plan with alternative pain management strategies
D. Asking the patient about allergies before administering the next dose
Correct Answer: B — Reassessing the patient's pain rating and determining the effectiveness of the
intervention
Rationale: Evaluation is the final step of the nursing process and involves reassessing the patient's response to
interventions and comparing outcomes to the established goals. By reassessing pain and judging the intervention's
effectiveness, the nurse is evaluating care. Documenting the medication (A) is part of Implementation. Developing a new
care plan (C) would only follow if evaluation showed the goal was not met. Allergy assessment (D) is part of ongoing
Assessment.
NUR 212 | Exam 1 Study Guide Page 2
,NUR 212 Exam 1 Preparation Practice Questions & Study Guide | 2026/2027
Q6: Which of the following is an example of objective assessment data?
A. The patient states, 'I feel nauseated.'
B. The patient's skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. [CORRECT]
C. The patient reports lower abdominal pain rated 7/10.
D. The patient says, 'I think I have a fever.'
Correct Answer: B — The patient's skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic.
Rationale: Objective data are observable, measurable, and verifiable by the nurse—what the nurse sees, hears, palpates, or
measures. Cool, pale, diaphoretic skin is observed by the nurse, making it objective data. Statements of nausea (A), pain
ratings (C), and the patient's perception of fever (D) are all subjective data because they are reported by the patient and
cannot be directly measured by the nurse. Distinguishing objective from subjective data is foundational to accurate
assessment and documentation.
Q7: A nurse writes the following outcome for a patient with impaired gas exchange: 'Patient's oxygen
saturation will be ≥ 92% within 12 hours of admission.' Which component of the SMART goal format
does '≥ 92%' represent?
A. Specific
B. Measurable [CORRECT]
C. Achievable
D. Time-bound
Correct Answer: B — Measurable
Rationale: In the SMART framework (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound), the value '≥ 92%'
provides a quantifiable criterion that can be objectively measured, making this the Measurable component. 'Within 12
hours' represents Time-bound. The outcome is Specific because it identifies a single indicator (oxygen saturation) and
Achievable because 92% is a realistic target for this patient. The measurable criterion allows the nurse to clearly evaluate
whether the goal was met.
Q8: Which nursing diagnosis is written in the correct PES (Problem–Etiology–Signs/Symptoms)
format?
A. Acute Pain related to surgical incision
B. Acute Pain related to surgical incision as evidenced by patient report of pain 8/10 and grimacing
with movement [CORRECT]
C. Acute Pain as evidenced by patient report of pain 8/10 related to surgical incision
D. Patient will report pain ≤ 3/10 within 4 hours of analgesic administration
Correct Answer: B — Acute Pain related to surgical incision as evidenced by patient report of pain 8/10 and
grimacing with movement
Rationale: The PES format requires the diagnostic label (Problem), the related factor (Etiology), and the defining
characteristics (Signs/Symptoms) in that order. Option B correctly follows the PES format: 'Acute Pain' (P) + 'related to
surgical incision' (E) + 'as evidenced by patient report of pain 8/10 and grimacing with movement' (S). Option A is missing
the symptoms. Option C reverses the etiology and symptom order. Option D is a goal statement, not a diagnostic statement.
Q9: A nurse is caring for a patient who is 1 day postoperative and develops new-onset confusion,
tachycardia (HR 118), and hypotension (BP 88/52). Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the rapid response team [CORRECT]
NUR 212 | Exam 1 Study Guide Page 3
, NUR 212 Exam 1 Preparation Practice Questions & Study Guide | 2026/2027
B. Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour
C. Administer the scheduled antihypertensive medication
D. Encourage the patient to drink 8 oz of water
Correct Answer: A — Notify the rapid response team
Rationale: The patient's presentation—new-onset confusion, tachycardia, and hypotension—is highly suggestive of
hemodynamic instability, possibly sepsis, hemorrhage, or shock. Using clinical judgment and the ABC framework, the
nurse must activate the rapid response team immediately. Waiting 1 hour to reassess (B) could result in irreversible
deterioration. Administering an antihypertensive (C) is contraindicated given the existing hypotension. Encouraging oral
fluids (D) is inappropriate for an unstable patient and could delay definitive treatment.
Q10: Which attitude or behavior is most characteristic of a nurse who demonstrates critical thinking
in clinical practice?
A. Accepting the unit protocol without question
B. Recognizing personal biases and seeking alternative explanations [CORRECT]
C. Relying solely on previous experience to make decisions
D. Avoiding collaboration with other health team members to maintain independence
Correct Answer: B — Recognizing personal biases and seeking alternative explanations
Rationale: Critical thinking in nursing requires self-awareness, recognition of personal biases, intellectual humility, and
openness to alternative explanations and evidence. The critical thinker questions, reflects, and seeks evidence rather than
accepting protocols unquestioningly (A). While experience is valuable, relying solely on past experience (C) closes the door
to new evidence. Effective critical thinkers also collaborate with interdisciplinary team members (D) to refine clinical
judgment.
Q11: A nurse receives the following orders for a patient with pneumonia: (1) administer IV antibiotic
ceftriaxone 1 g, (2) encourage incentive spirometry every hour, (3) obtain sputum culture, (4) titrate
oxygen to keep SpO2 ≥ 92%. Which interventions represent independent nursing actions?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only [CORRECT]
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer: C — 2 and 4 only
Rationale: Independent nursing actions are those the nurse can initiate without a provider's order, based on nursing
knowledge and scope of practice. Encouraging incentive spirometry (2) and titrating oxygen within a prescribed range (4)
reflect independent interventions within the nursing scope. Administering IV antibiotics (1) and ordering/obtaining a
sputum culture (3) require a provider's order and are therefore dependent interventions. This distinction is central to safe
and legally sound practice.
Q12: The night shift nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient requires the most immediate
assessment?
A. A patient 2 days postoperative who has not had a bowel movement since surgery
B. A patient with chronic kidney disease whose serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L [CORRECT]
C. A patient with diabetes whose fasting glucose is 145 mg/dL
D. A patient with osteoarthritis requesting prn acetaminophen
NUR 212 | Exam 1 Study Guide Page 4
NUR 212 Exam 1 Preparation
Practice Questions and Study Guide
Aligned with current NUR 212 curriculum standards (2026/2027 update)
100 Questions | 7 Sections | Comprehensive Rationales
How to use this study guide: Each question is followed by four options (A–D). The correct option is marked
[CORRECT]. A detailed rationale follows each question, explaining the underlying nursing reasoning, the relevant
nursing process step, applicable priority frameworks (ABC, Maslow, least restrictive), and the supporting
evidence-based practice. Work through all 100 questions sequentially, then revisit any questions you missed to
consolidate your knowledge.
Section 1: Nursing Process and Clinical Judgment
ADPIE, Critical Thinking, Clinical Reasoning, and Prioritization (Q1–Q15)
Q1: The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient with heart failure. After completing the
admission assessment and formulating a nursing diagnosis of Decreased Cardiac Output, the nurse
develops a plan of care with measurable outcomes. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse
demonstrating?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning [CORRECT]
D. Implementation
Correct Answer: C — Planning
Rationale: Planning is the third step of the nursing process (ADPIE) and involves setting priorities, establishing
measurable SMART outcomes, and developing nursing interventions. Assessment is data collection (step 1), Diagnosis is
formulating the diagnostic statement (step 2), and Implementation is carrying out the interventions (step 4). Because the
nurse is establishing measurable outcomes and a plan of care, this is clearly the Planning phase.
Q2: A patient reports, 'I feel like I can't catch my breath when I lie flat.' Which component of the
nursing diagnosis does this statement represent?
A. Etiology (related factor)
B. Defining characteristic [CORRECT]
C. Goal statement
D. Evaluation criterion
Correct Answer: B — Defining characteristic
Rationale: The patient's verbalized sensation of breathlessness when supine is a defining characteristic—subjective data
reported by the patient that supports the diagnosis (e.g., Activity Intolerance or Ineffective Breathing Pattern). The etiology
(related factor) is the cause, such as decreased cardiac output or fluid overload. Goal statements and evaluation criteria are
written later, during the Planning phase. Subjective data from the patient always serve as defining characteristics.
NUR 212 | Exam 1 Study Guide Page 1
,NUR 212 Exam 1 Preparation Practice Questions & Study Guide | 2026/2027
Q3: The nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving report on four patients. Which patient should
the nurse assess first?
A. A 68-year-old with heart failure whose weight increased by 1 kg overnight
B. A 54-year-old postoperative patient requesting pain medication for surgical-site pain rated 6/10
C. A 72-year-old with COPD whose oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 88% over the last hour
[CORRECT]
D. A 45-year-old with diabetes whose morning blood glucose is 220 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C — A 72-year-old with COPD whose oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 88% over the
last hour
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway-Breathing-Circulation) prioritization framework, the COPD patient's acute oxygen
desaturation to 88% represents an immediate threat to breathing and is the highest priority. The postoperative pain (B) and
elevated glucose (D) are important but stable and non-life-threatening. The heart failure patient's 1-kg overnight weight
gain (A) indicates fluid retention that requires monitoring and intervention, but it does not represent an acute
airway/breathing emergency. ABCs always take priority over fluid status, pain, and glycemic control.
Q4: The nurse is prioritizing care for four patients using Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs. Which
patient need should receive the highest priority?
A. A patient who is anxious about an upcoming diagnostic procedure
B. A patient who recently had a stroke and is unable to feed himself [CORRECT]
C. A patient who is requesting information about discharge medications
D. A patient who is asking for a consultation with the chaplain
Correct Answer: B — A patient who recently had a stroke and is unable to feed himself
Rationale: Maslow's Hierarchy prioritizes physiological needs (food, air, water, elimination) above safety, love/belonging,
esteem, and self-actualization needs. The post-stroke patient's inability to feed himself threatens a fundamental
physiological need (nutrition and hydration) and is the highest priority. Anxiety (A) addresses safety/security needs,
discharge teaching (C) addresses esteem/cognitive needs, and the chaplain request (D) addresses self-actualization/spiritual
needs—all higher-level needs that are addressed only after physiological needs are met.
Q5: A nurse administered an analgesic to a postoperative patient 45 minutes ago. The patient now
reports pain has decreased from 8/10 to 4/10. Which action by the nurse best demonstrates the
Evaluation step of the nursing process?
A. Documenting the medication administered on the MAR
B. Reassessing the patient's pain rating and determining the effectiveness of the intervention
[CORRECT]
C. Developing a new care plan with alternative pain management strategies
D. Asking the patient about allergies before administering the next dose
Correct Answer: B — Reassessing the patient's pain rating and determining the effectiveness of the
intervention
Rationale: Evaluation is the final step of the nursing process and involves reassessing the patient's response to
interventions and comparing outcomes to the established goals. By reassessing pain and judging the intervention's
effectiveness, the nurse is evaluating care. Documenting the medication (A) is part of Implementation. Developing a new
care plan (C) would only follow if evaluation showed the goal was not met. Allergy assessment (D) is part of ongoing
Assessment.
NUR 212 | Exam 1 Study Guide Page 2
,NUR 212 Exam 1 Preparation Practice Questions & Study Guide | 2026/2027
Q6: Which of the following is an example of objective assessment data?
A. The patient states, 'I feel nauseated.'
B. The patient's skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic. [CORRECT]
C. The patient reports lower abdominal pain rated 7/10.
D. The patient says, 'I think I have a fever.'
Correct Answer: B — The patient's skin is cool, pale, and diaphoretic.
Rationale: Objective data are observable, measurable, and verifiable by the nurse—what the nurse sees, hears, palpates, or
measures. Cool, pale, diaphoretic skin is observed by the nurse, making it objective data. Statements of nausea (A), pain
ratings (C), and the patient's perception of fever (D) are all subjective data because they are reported by the patient and
cannot be directly measured by the nurse. Distinguishing objective from subjective data is foundational to accurate
assessment and documentation.
Q7: A nurse writes the following outcome for a patient with impaired gas exchange: 'Patient's oxygen
saturation will be ≥ 92% within 12 hours of admission.' Which component of the SMART goal format
does '≥ 92%' represent?
A. Specific
B. Measurable [CORRECT]
C. Achievable
D. Time-bound
Correct Answer: B — Measurable
Rationale: In the SMART framework (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound), the value '≥ 92%'
provides a quantifiable criterion that can be objectively measured, making this the Measurable component. 'Within 12
hours' represents Time-bound. The outcome is Specific because it identifies a single indicator (oxygen saturation) and
Achievable because 92% is a realistic target for this patient. The measurable criterion allows the nurse to clearly evaluate
whether the goal was met.
Q8: Which nursing diagnosis is written in the correct PES (Problem–Etiology–Signs/Symptoms)
format?
A. Acute Pain related to surgical incision
B. Acute Pain related to surgical incision as evidenced by patient report of pain 8/10 and grimacing
with movement [CORRECT]
C. Acute Pain as evidenced by patient report of pain 8/10 related to surgical incision
D. Patient will report pain ≤ 3/10 within 4 hours of analgesic administration
Correct Answer: B — Acute Pain related to surgical incision as evidenced by patient report of pain 8/10 and
grimacing with movement
Rationale: The PES format requires the diagnostic label (Problem), the related factor (Etiology), and the defining
characteristics (Signs/Symptoms) in that order. Option B correctly follows the PES format: 'Acute Pain' (P) + 'related to
surgical incision' (E) + 'as evidenced by patient report of pain 8/10 and grimacing with movement' (S). Option A is missing
the symptoms. Option C reverses the etiology and symptom order. Option D is a goal statement, not a diagnostic statement.
Q9: A nurse is caring for a patient who is 1 day postoperative and develops new-onset confusion,
tachycardia (HR 118), and hypotension (BP 88/52). Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Notify the rapid response team [CORRECT]
NUR 212 | Exam 1 Study Guide Page 3
, NUR 212 Exam 1 Preparation Practice Questions & Study Guide | 2026/2027
B. Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour
C. Administer the scheduled antihypertensive medication
D. Encourage the patient to drink 8 oz of water
Correct Answer: A — Notify the rapid response team
Rationale: The patient's presentation—new-onset confusion, tachycardia, and hypotension—is highly suggestive of
hemodynamic instability, possibly sepsis, hemorrhage, or shock. Using clinical judgment and the ABC framework, the
nurse must activate the rapid response team immediately. Waiting 1 hour to reassess (B) could result in irreversible
deterioration. Administering an antihypertensive (C) is contraindicated given the existing hypotension. Encouraging oral
fluids (D) is inappropriate for an unstable patient and could delay definitive treatment.
Q10: Which attitude or behavior is most characteristic of a nurse who demonstrates critical thinking
in clinical practice?
A. Accepting the unit protocol without question
B. Recognizing personal biases and seeking alternative explanations [CORRECT]
C. Relying solely on previous experience to make decisions
D. Avoiding collaboration with other health team members to maintain independence
Correct Answer: B — Recognizing personal biases and seeking alternative explanations
Rationale: Critical thinking in nursing requires self-awareness, recognition of personal biases, intellectual humility, and
openness to alternative explanations and evidence. The critical thinker questions, reflects, and seeks evidence rather than
accepting protocols unquestioningly (A). While experience is valuable, relying solely on past experience (C) closes the door
to new evidence. Effective critical thinkers also collaborate with interdisciplinary team members (D) to refine clinical
judgment.
Q11: A nurse receives the following orders for a patient with pneumonia: (1) administer IV antibiotic
ceftriaxone 1 g, (2) encourage incentive spirometry every hour, (3) obtain sputum culture, (4) titrate
oxygen to keep SpO2 ≥ 92%. Which interventions represent independent nursing actions?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only [CORRECT]
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer: C — 2 and 4 only
Rationale: Independent nursing actions are those the nurse can initiate without a provider's order, based on nursing
knowledge and scope of practice. Encouraging incentive spirometry (2) and titrating oxygen within a prescribed range (4)
reflect independent interventions within the nursing scope. Administering IV antibiotics (1) and ordering/obtaining a
sputum culture (3) require a provider's order and are therefore dependent interventions. This distinction is central to safe
and legally sound practice.
Q12: The night shift nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient requires the most immediate
assessment?
A. A patient 2 days postoperative who has not had a bowel movement since surgery
B. A patient with chronic kidney disease whose serum potassium is 5.9 mEq/L [CORRECT]
C. A patient with diabetes whose fasting glucose is 145 mg/dL
D. A patient with osteoarthritis requesting prn acetaminophen
NUR 212 | Exam 1 Study Guide Page 4
