NUR 2063 / NUR2063: Essentials of
Pathophysiology Exam 3 | Rasmussen University |
Verified Questions and Answers | A+ Graded |
Latest 2026/2027 Edition
1. A client with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 30%. Which pathophysiologic mechanism
best explains the reduced cardiac output?
A) Increased preload
B) Decreased myocardial contractility
C) Increased afterload
D) Decreased heart rate
Answer B: Decreased myocardial contractility
Rationale: HFrEF (systolic heart failure) results from impaired contractility, reducing stroke volume and
cardiac output.
2. A client with hypertension has a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg. Which pathophysiologic
change is most likely responsible for the elevated blood pressure?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Increased peripheral vascular resistance
C) Decreased blood volume
D) Decreased sympathetic activity
Answer B: Increased peripheral vascular resistance
Rationale: Primary hypertension is primarily caused by increased systemic vascular resistance.
3. A client with an acute myocardial infarction has elevated troponin levels. What does troponin
indicate?
A) Inflammation of the pericardium
,B) Myocardial cell necrosis
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Liver dysfunction
Answer B: Myocardial cell necrosis
Rationale: Troponin is a cardiac biomarker released when myocardial cells are damaged/necrosed.
4. Which of the following is a compensatory mechanism in heart failure that initially helps but
eventually worsens the condition?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)
C) Vasodilation
D) Decreased preload
Answer B: Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)
Rationale: RAAS activation increases blood volume and vasoconstriction, initially maintaining perfusion
but eventually worsening HF.
5. A client with left-sided heart failure presents with crackles and dyspnea. What is the underlying
pathophysiologic mechanism?
A) Systemic venous congestion
B) Pulmonary venous congestion
C) Decreased pulmonary blood flow
D) Peripheral vasodilation
Answer B: Pulmonary venous congestion
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation, leading to
pulmonary congestion.
6. A client with right-sided heart failure presents with jugular vein distention and peripheral
edema. What is the underlying pathophysiologic mechanism?
,A) Pulmonary congestion
B) Systemic venous congestion
C) Decreased systemic blood flow
D) Peripheral vasodilation
Answer B: Systemic venous congestion
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the systemic venous circulation.
7. Which of the following is the primary cause of atherosclerosis?
A) Decreased lipid intake
B) Endothelial injury and lipid accumulation
C) Increased HDL levels
D) Hypotension
Answer B: Endothelial injury and lipid accumulation
Rationale: Atherosclerosis begins with endothelial injury, followed by LDL accumulation and plaque
formation.
8. A client with angina pectoris has chest pain relieved by rest. What is the underlying
pathophysiologic mechanism?
A) Complete coronary occlusion
B) Myocardial ischemia due to increased oxygen demand
C) Pericardial inflammation
D) Aortic dissection
Answer B: Myocardial ischemia due to increased oxygen demand
Rationale: Stable angina occurs when oxygen demand exceeds supply, often with exertion, and resolves
with rest.
9. A client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm is at risk for which life-threatening complication?
A) Peripheral edema
, B) Rupture and hemorrhage
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Deep vein thrombosis
Answer B: Rupture and hemorrhage
Rationale: AAA rupture leads to massive internal bleeding, hypovolemic shock, and high mortality.
10. Which of the following is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
A) Viral infection
B) Bacterial infection
C) Fungal infection
D) Autoimmune reaction
Answer B: Bacterial infection
Rationale: Infective endocarditis is most commonly caused by bacteria (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus,
Streptococcus viridans).
11. A client with mitral stenosis is at risk for which complication?
A) Aortic regurgitation
B) Atrial fibrillation and pulmonary hypertension
C) Right ventricular hypertrophy
D) Pericarditis
Answer B: Atrial fibrillation and pulmonary hypertension
Rationale: Mitral stenosis obstructs left atrial emptying, leading to atrial enlargement, AFib, and
pulmonary congestion.
12. A client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is at highest risk for which complication?
A) Peripheral arterial disease
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Aortic aneurysm
Pathophysiology Exam 3 | Rasmussen University |
Verified Questions and Answers | A+ Graded |
Latest 2026/2027 Edition
1. A client with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 30%. Which pathophysiologic mechanism
best explains the reduced cardiac output?
A) Increased preload
B) Decreased myocardial contractility
C) Increased afterload
D) Decreased heart rate
Answer B: Decreased myocardial contractility
Rationale: HFrEF (systolic heart failure) results from impaired contractility, reducing stroke volume and
cardiac output.
2. A client with hypertension has a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg. Which pathophysiologic
change is most likely responsible for the elevated blood pressure?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Increased peripheral vascular resistance
C) Decreased blood volume
D) Decreased sympathetic activity
Answer B: Increased peripheral vascular resistance
Rationale: Primary hypertension is primarily caused by increased systemic vascular resistance.
3. A client with an acute myocardial infarction has elevated troponin levels. What does troponin
indicate?
A) Inflammation of the pericardium
,B) Myocardial cell necrosis
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Liver dysfunction
Answer B: Myocardial cell necrosis
Rationale: Troponin is a cardiac biomarker released when myocardial cells are damaged/necrosed.
4. Which of the following is a compensatory mechanism in heart failure that initially helps but
eventually worsens the condition?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)
C) Vasodilation
D) Decreased preload
Answer B: Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)
Rationale: RAAS activation increases blood volume and vasoconstriction, initially maintaining perfusion
but eventually worsening HF.
5. A client with left-sided heart failure presents with crackles and dyspnea. What is the underlying
pathophysiologic mechanism?
A) Systemic venous congestion
B) Pulmonary venous congestion
C) Decreased pulmonary blood flow
D) Peripheral vasodilation
Answer B: Pulmonary venous congestion
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation, leading to
pulmonary congestion.
6. A client with right-sided heart failure presents with jugular vein distention and peripheral
edema. What is the underlying pathophysiologic mechanism?
,A) Pulmonary congestion
B) Systemic venous congestion
C) Decreased systemic blood flow
D) Peripheral vasodilation
Answer B: Systemic venous congestion
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the systemic venous circulation.
7. Which of the following is the primary cause of atherosclerosis?
A) Decreased lipid intake
B) Endothelial injury and lipid accumulation
C) Increased HDL levels
D) Hypotension
Answer B: Endothelial injury and lipid accumulation
Rationale: Atherosclerosis begins with endothelial injury, followed by LDL accumulation and plaque
formation.
8. A client with angina pectoris has chest pain relieved by rest. What is the underlying
pathophysiologic mechanism?
A) Complete coronary occlusion
B) Myocardial ischemia due to increased oxygen demand
C) Pericardial inflammation
D) Aortic dissection
Answer B: Myocardial ischemia due to increased oxygen demand
Rationale: Stable angina occurs when oxygen demand exceeds supply, often with exertion, and resolves
with rest.
9. A client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm is at risk for which life-threatening complication?
A) Peripheral edema
, B) Rupture and hemorrhage
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Deep vein thrombosis
Answer B: Rupture and hemorrhage
Rationale: AAA rupture leads to massive internal bleeding, hypovolemic shock, and high mortality.
10. Which of the following is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
A) Viral infection
B) Bacterial infection
C) Fungal infection
D) Autoimmune reaction
Answer B: Bacterial infection
Rationale: Infective endocarditis is most commonly caused by bacteria (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus,
Streptococcus viridans).
11. A client with mitral stenosis is at risk for which complication?
A) Aortic regurgitation
B) Atrial fibrillation and pulmonary hypertension
C) Right ventricular hypertrophy
D) Pericarditis
Answer B: Atrial fibrillation and pulmonary hypertension
Rationale: Mitral stenosis obstructs left atrial emptying, leading to atrial enlargement, AFib, and
pulmonary congestion.
12. A client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is at highest risk for which complication?
A) Peripheral arterial disease
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Aortic aneurysm
