Rasmussen College | NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing
NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Exam 2
Comprehensive Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
Rasmussen College | NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing | University-Level Nursing Students
75 Verified Questions | 4 Core Domains | Academic Year 2026/2027
Prepared by
Rasmussen College | NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing
Examination 2 Actual Exam | Academic Year 2026/2027
NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Exam 2 Comprehensive Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This Examination 2 Comprehensive Examination contains 75 verified questions designed for university-
level nursing students enrolled in NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing at Rasmussen College. The
questions are distributed across four core domains: High-Risk Pregnancy and Intrapartum Complications
(19 questions), Postpartum Care and Newborn Assessment (19 questions), Pediatric Growth,
Development, and Health Promotion (19 questions), and Common Pediatric Health Alterations and
Nursing Care (18 questions). All content is original and constructed to reinforce the official NUR 2513
Examination 2 course objectives for actual exam readiness and clinical proficiency, aligned to the
2026/2027 academic year. Each item emphasizes obstetric risk management, newborn transition,
developmental milestones, and common pediatric conditions drawn from foundational maternal-child
nursing methodology.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: High-Risk Pregnancy and Intrapartum Complications
Question 1. A pregnant client at 32 weeks’ gestation has a blood pressure of 162/110 mm
Hg, proteinuria, and headache. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Preeclampsia with severe features
B. Gestational hypertension without proteinuria
C. Normal pregnancy-related blood-pressure elevation
D. Chronic hypertension only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Blood pressure ≥160/110 mm Hg accompanied by proteinuria or other severe features
(headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, laboratory abnormalities) meets criteria for preeclampsia
with severe features and requires prompt management.
Question 2. Which medication is the first-line agent for seizure prophylaxis in a client with
preeclampsia with severe features?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam as the sole agent
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Oral labetalol only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the evidence-based agent for prevention and treatment of eclamptic
seizures; serum levels and clinical signs of toxicity (loss of reflexes, respiratory depression) must be
monitored.
Question 3. A client in active labor has a sudden onset of prolonged fetal bradycardia and
loss of station of the presenting part. What complication must be suspected?
A. Normal labor progress
B. Umbilical cord prolapse
C. Mild variable decelerations only
D. Maternal hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden fetal bradycardia with loss of station after rupture of membranes is classic for
umbilical cord prolapse; immediate upward pressure on the presenting part and emergent delivery are
required.
Question 4. Which finding is most consistent with placental abruption?
NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Exam 2 Comprehensive Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, A. Painless bright-red vaginal bleeding with a soft uterus
B. Painless bleeding with a soft, non-tender uterus after 28 weeks
C. Clear fluid leaking from the vagina without pain
D. Painful vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness or hypertonus, and signs of fetal or maternal
compromise
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placental abruption typically presents with abdominal pain, uterine tenderness or rigidity,
and vaginal bleeding (which may be concealed); maternal and fetal status can deteriorate rapidly.
Question 5. A client at 28 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. What is
the initial management approach?
A. Medical nutrition therapy, blood-glucose monitoring, and addition of pharmacologic therapy if
targets are not met
B. Immediate insulin therapy for all clients
C. Complete restriction of all carbohydrates
D. No monitoring until the third trimester
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: First-line management of gestational diabetes is dietary modification and glucose
monitoring; insulin or oral agents are added when glycemic targets are not achieved with nutrition
therapy alone.
Question 6. Which fetal heart-rate pattern is most concerning for uteroplacental
insufficiency?
A. Early decelerations that mirror contractions
B. Late decelerations that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to baseline after the
contraction ends
C. Moderate variability with accelerations
D. Variable decelerations that are brief and non-repetitive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations reflect impaired uteroplacental gas exchange and are a non-reassuring
pattern that requires intrauterine resuscitation and possible expedited delivery.
Question 7. A client with preterm labor at 30 weeks is receiving antenatal corticosteroids.
What is the primary benefit of this therapy?
A. Immediate cessation of all contractions
B. Prevention of all future preterm births
C. Acceleration of fetal lung maturity and reduction of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome and
other complications
D. Elimination of the need for neonatal intensive care
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A course of antenatal corticosteroids given between 24 and 34 weeks (and selected later
gestations) significantly reduces the incidence and severity of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome,
intraventricular hemorrhage, and mortality.
Question 8. Which condition is characterized by painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding in
the third trimester and is confirmed by ultrasound?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa only when vessels are over the cervix
NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Exam 2 Comprehensive Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Exam 2
Comprehensive Examination 2026/2027 |
Verified Questions
Rasmussen College | NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing | University-Level Nursing Students
75 Verified Questions | 4 Core Domains | Academic Year 2026/2027
Prepared by
Rasmussen College | NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing
Examination 2 Actual Exam | Academic Year 2026/2027
NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Exam 2 Comprehensive Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This Examination 2 Comprehensive Examination contains 75 verified questions designed for university-
level nursing students enrolled in NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing at Rasmussen College. The
questions are distributed across four core domains: High-Risk Pregnancy and Intrapartum Complications
(19 questions), Postpartum Care and Newborn Assessment (19 questions), Pediatric Growth,
Development, and Health Promotion (19 questions), and Common Pediatric Health Alterations and
Nursing Care (18 questions). All content is original and constructed to reinforce the official NUR 2513
Examination 2 course objectives for actual exam readiness and clinical proficiency, aligned to the
2026/2027 academic year. Each item emphasizes obstetric risk management, newborn transition,
developmental milestones, and common pediatric conditions drawn from foundational maternal-child
nursing methodology.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: High-Risk Pregnancy and Intrapartum Complications
Question 1. A pregnant client at 32 weeks’ gestation has a blood pressure of 162/110 mm
Hg, proteinuria, and headache. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Preeclampsia with severe features
B. Gestational hypertension without proteinuria
C. Normal pregnancy-related blood-pressure elevation
D. Chronic hypertension only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Blood pressure ≥160/110 mm Hg accompanied by proteinuria or other severe features
(headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, laboratory abnormalities) meets criteria for preeclampsia
with severe features and requires prompt management.
Question 2. Which medication is the first-line agent for seizure prophylaxis in a client with
preeclampsia with severe features?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam as the sole agent
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Oral labetalol only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the evidence-based agent for prevention and treatment of eclamptic
seizures; serum levels and clinical signs of toxicity (loss of reflexes, respiratory depression) must be
monitored.
Question 3. A client in active labor has a sudden onset of prolonged fetal bradycardia and
loss of station of the presenting part. What complication must be suspected?
A. Normal labor progress
B. Umbilical cord prolapse
C. Mild variable decelerations only
D. Maternal hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden fetal bradycardia with loss of station after rupture of membranes is classic for
umbilical cord prolapse; immediate upward pressure on the presenting part and emergent delivery are
required.
Question 4. Which finding is most consistent with placental abruption?
NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Exam 2 Comprehensive Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, A. Painless bright-red vaginal bleeding with a soft uterus
B. Painless bleeding with a soft, non-tender uterus after 28 weeks
C. Clear fluid leaking from the vagina without pain
D. Painful vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness or hypertonus, and signs of fetal or maternal
compromise
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placental abruption typically presents with abdominal pain, uterine tenderness or rigidity,
and vaginal bleeding (which may be concealed); maternal and fetal status can deteriorate rapidly.
Question 5. A client at 28 weeks’ gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. What is
the initial management approach?
A. Medical nutrition therapy, blood-glucose monitoring, and addition of pharmacologic therapy if
targets are not met
B. Immediate insulin therapy for all clients
C. Complete restriction of all carbohydrates
D. No monitoring until the third trimester
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: First-line management of gestational diabetes is dietary modification and glucose
monitoring; insulin or oral agents are added when glycemic targets are not achieved with nutrition
therapy alone.
Question 6. Which fetal heart-rate pattern is most concerning for uteroplacental
insufficiency?
A. Early decelerations that mirror contractions
B. Late decelerations that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to baseline after the
contraction ends
C. Moderate variability with accelerations
D. Variable decelerations that are brief and non-repetitive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations reflect impaired uteroplacental gas exchange and are a non-reassuring
pattern that requires intrauterine resuscitation and possible expedited delivery.
Question 7. A client with preterm labor at 30 weeks is receiving antenatal corticosteroids.
What is the primary benefit of this therapy?
A. Immediate cessation of all contractions
B. Prevention of all future preterm births
C. Acceleration of fetal lung maturity and reduction of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome and
other complications
D. Elimination of the need for neonatal intensive care
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A course of antenatal corticosteroids given between 24 and 34 weeks (and selected later
gestations) significantly reduces the incidence and severity of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome,
intraventricular hemorrhage, and mortality.
Question 8. Which condition is characterized by painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding in
the third trimester and is confirmed by ultrasound?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa only when vessels are over the cervix
NUR 2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Exam 2 Comprehensive Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
