WGU D487 Secure Software Design
OA V3 and Practice 2026/2027 –
Questions and Answers | 100%
Verified | Detailed Rationales – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded |Instant
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Q1: What is the primary goal of integrating security
into the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
A. To eliminate all software vulnerabilities before
deployment
B. To shift security left by identifying and mitigating risks
as early as possible in the development process
C. To replace traditional QA testing with security testing
D. To ensure all code is written in memory-safe languages
Answer: B. To shift security left by identifying and
mitigating risks as early as possible in the development
process.
Rationale: The primary goal of a Secure SDLC (SSDLC) is
to "shift security left," which means integrating security
practices, like threat modeling and security requirements,
,early in the development phases (requirements and
design). This proactive approach is more effective and less
costly than fixing vulnerabilities after deployment . Option
A is incorrect because it is unrealistic to eliminate all
vulnerabilities, and C is incorrect as security testing
complements, rather than replaces, QA .
Q2: In the STRIDE threat modeling framework, which
threat category corresponds to an attacker modifying
data in transit between a client and a server?
A. Spoofing
B. Tampering
C. Repudiation
D. Information Disclosure
Answer: B. Tampering.
Rationale: Tampering involves the unauthorized
modification of data, either while it is stored (at rest) or
being transmitted (in transit), such as in a man-in-the-
middle attack . This threat targets the integrity of the data.
Spoofing (A) is about identity fraud, Repudiation (C) is
about denying actions, and Information Disclosure (D) is
about unauthorized access to data .
Q3: A security architect is using the DREAD model to
assign a risk rating. Which factor does the "D" in
DREAD represent?
,A. Denial of Service
B. Data loss
C. Damage potential
D. Detectability
Answer: C. Damage potential.
Rationale: The DREAD acronym stands for Damage
potential, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users,
and Discoverability . It is a risk assessment model used to
quantify and prioritize threats. The "Damage potential"
category assesses the total impact or harm a threat could
cause if exploited, ranging from information disclosure to
system destruction .
Q4: Which of the following best describes the principle
of "Defense in Depth"?
A. Using only open-source security tools.
B. Relying on a single, strong firewall to protect the entire
network.
C. Implementing multiple layers of security controls so that
if one fails, others are in place.
D. Giving users the minimum level of access necessary to
perform their functions.
Answer: C. Implementing multiple layers of security
controls so that if one fails, others are in place.
, Rationale: Defense in depth is a fundamental security
strategy that uses a series of layered, redundant security
controls. The idea is that if an attacker breaches one layer,
the subsequent layers will stop the attack, thereby
protecting the core assets . Option D describes the
principle of least privilege, while A and B represent other
concepts .
Q5: A developer wants to ensure that if an error or
exception occurs, the application defaults to a secure
state (e.g., denying all access). This is an example of
which security design principle?
A. Economy of Mechanism
B. Complete Mediation
C. Fail-Safe Defaults
D. Open Design
Answer: C. Fail-Safe Defaults.
Rationale: The "fail-safe defaults" principle (also known as
"fail secure") ensures that when a system or component
fails, it does so by defaulting to a secure state. This often
means denying access rather than granting it . A classic
example is a firewall that blocks all traffic if it crashes. This
prevents a failure from creating a vulnerability .
Q6: A software application allows users to upload files.
During the design phase, which threat modeling
OA V3 and Practice 2026/2027 –
Questions and Answers | 100%
Verified | Detailed Rationales – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded |Instant
Download
Q1: What is the primary goal of integrating security
into the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
A. To eliminate all software vulnerabilities before
deployment
B. To shift security left by identifying and mitigating risks
as early as possible in the development process
C. To replace traditional QA testing with security testing
D. To ensure all code is written in memory-safe languages
Answer: B. To shift security left by identifying and
mitigating risks as early as possible in the development
process.
Rationale: The primary goal of a Secure SDLC (SSDLC) is
to "shift security left," which means integrating security
practices, like threat modeling and security requirements,
,early in the development phases (requirements and
design). This proactive approach is more effective and less
costly than fixing vulnerabilities after deployment . Option
A is incorrect because it is unrealistic to eliminate all
vulnerabilities, and C is incorrect as security testing
complements, rather than replaces, QA .
Q2: In the STRIDE threat modeling framework, which
threat category corresponds to an attacker modifying
data in transit between a client and a server?
A. Spoofing
B. Tampering
C. Repudiation
D. Information Disclosure
Answer: B. Tampering.
Rationale: Tampering involves the unauthorized
modification of data, either while it is stored (at rest) or
being transmitted (in transit), such as in a man-in-the-
middle attack . This threat targets the integrity of the data.
Spoofing (A) is about identity fraud, Repudiation (C) is
about denying actions, and Information Disclosure (D) is
about unauthorized access to data .
Q3: A security architect is using the DREAD model to
assign a risk rating. Which factor does the "D" in
DREAD represent?
,A. Denial of Service
B. Data loss
C. Damage potential
D. Detectability
Answer: C. Damage potential.
Rationale: The DREAD acronym stands for Damage
potential, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users,
and Discoverability . It is a risk assessment model used to
quantify and prioritize threats. The "Damage potential"
category assesses the total impact or harm a threat could
cause if exploited, ranging from information disclosure to
system destruction .
Q4: Which of the following best describes the principle
of "Defense in Depth"?
A. Using only open-source security tools.
B. Relying on a single, strong firewall to protect the entire
network.
C. Implementing multiple layers of security controls so that
if one fails, others are in place.
D. Giving users the minimum level of access necessary to
perform their functions.
Answer: C. Implementing multiple layers of security
controls so that if one fails, others are in place.
, Rationale: Defense in depth is a fundamental security
strategy that uses a series of layered, redundant security
controls. The idea is that if an attacker breaches one layer,
the subsequent layers will stop the attack, thereby
protecting the core assets . Option D describes the
principle of least privilege, while A and B represent other
concepts .
Q5: A developer wants to ensure that if an error or
exception occurs, the application defaults to a secure
state (e.g., denying all access). This is an example of
which security design principle?
A. Economy of Mechanism
B. Complete Mediation
C. Fail-Safe Defaults
D. Open Design
Answer: C. Fail-Safe Defaults.
Rationale: The "fail-safe defaults" principle (also known as
"fail secure") ensures that when a system or component
fails, it does so by defaulting to a secure state. This often
means denying access rather than granting it . A classic
example is a firewall that blocks all traffic if it crashes. This
prevents a failure from creating a vulnerability .
Q6: A software application allows users to upload files.
During the design phase, which threat modeling
