CNR N4000: DR. CHELLY TUFTS BEVEL NURSING OMG
PACKET GOES WITH YOU EVERYWHERE/STUDY 24/7!!!
– COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
VERIFIED AND WELL-DETAILED ANSWERS | DETAILED
EXPLANATIONS AND RATIONALES | COMPLETE EXAM
PREPARATION STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE QUESTIONS |
LATEST EXAM UPDATE
CORE DOMAINS
1. Prioritization, Clinical Judgment, and Emergency Nursing
2. Delegation, Assignment, and Management of Care
3. Infection Prevention, Isolation, and Infectious Diseases
4. Fluid, Electrolyte, Acid–Base, and Shock Management
5. Pharmacology, Medication Safety, and Adverse Effects
6. Adult Health and Medical-Surgical Nursing
7. Maternal, Pediatric, and Geriatric Nursing Concepts
8. Nutrition, Therapeutic Diets, and Patient Education
9. Ethical, Legal, Cultural, and Professional Nursing Practice
10. NCLEX-Style Clinical Judgment and Test-Taking Strategies
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–50
Question 1.
The nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 6/10
B. A client with pneumonia whose oxygen saturation is 84% despite oxygen therapy
C. A client awaiting discharge instructions
D. A client requesting assistance with bathing
,Correct Answer: B. A client with pneumonia whose oxygen saturation is 84% despite
oxygen therapy
Explanation: An oxygen saturation of 84% despite oxygen therapy indicates significant
impaired oxygenation and possible respiratory deterioration. Airway and breathing problems
take priority over pain, discharge teaching, and hygiene needs.
Question 2.
Which assessment finding most strongly suggests an immediate airway problem?
A. Inspiratory stridor
B. Mild tachycardia
C. Temperature of 38°C
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: A. Inspiratory stridor
Explanation: Stridor indicates upper-airway narrowing and can rapidly progress to complete
airway obstruction. It requires immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 3.
A nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops facial drooping and slurred speech.
What is the priority action?
A. Give the client oral fluids
B. Place the client in a supine position
C. Activate the facility's stroke response and determine the time symptoms began
D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct Answer: C. Activate the facility's stroke response and determine the time
symptoms began
Explanation: Sudden focal neurological deficits suggest an acute stroke. Rapid evaluation is
essential because treatment options depend heavily on the time of symptom onset.
Question 4.
Which finding is most concerning in a client receiving opioid analgesia?
A. Respiratory rate of 8/min
B. Pain rating of 4/10
C. Mild nausea
D. Drowsiness after activity
Correct Answer: A. Respiratory rate of 8/min
,Explanation: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 8/min is
dangerously low and requires immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 5.
Which task is generally appropriate for a registered nurse to delegate to an experienced
nursing assistant?
A. Initial assessment of a newly admitted client
B. Teaching insulin injection technique
C. Obtaining routine vital signs on a stable client
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
Correct Answer: C. Obtaining routine vital signs on a stable client
Explanation: Routine data collection for a stable client may be delegated to appropriately
trained assistive personnel. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation remain nursing
responsibilities.
Question 6.
Which client is most appropriate for assignment to a practical/vocational nurse when
consistent with state law and facility policy?
A. A newly admitted unstable client
B. A stable client requiring routine medication administration and wound care
C. A client experiencing sudden chest pain
D. A client requiring initial discharge teaching
Correct Answer: B. A stable client requiring routine medication administration and wound
care
Explanation: Practical/vocational nurses may care for stable clients with predictable
outcomes within their scope. Unstable assessment, initial teaching, and rapidly changing
conditions require higher-level nursing judgment.
Question 7.
Which intervention is most effective for preventing transmission of infection?
A. Wearing gloves for every client interaction
B. Performing hand hygiene at appropriate times
C. Keeping the client's door closed at all times
D. Administering antibiotics prophylactically
Correct Answer: B. Performing hand hygiene at appropriate times
Explanation: Hand hygiene is one of the most effective methods for preventing healthcare-
associated infection. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene.
, Question 8.
A client with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis is admitted. Which precaution is
appropriate?
A. Contact precautions only
B. Droplet precautions only
C. Airborne precautions
D. Protective isolation
Correct Answer: C. Airborne precautions
Explanation: Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles. Appropriate
airborne precautions include a properly fitted respirator and an appropriate isolation
environment.
Question 9.
Which laboratory finding is most consistent with hyperkalemia?
A. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
B. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
C. Potassium 5.9 mEq/L
D. Sodium 138 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C. Potassium 5.9 mEq/L
Explanation: Normal serum potassium is approximately 3.5–5.0 mEq/L, although laboratory
ranges vary. A level of 5.9 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can cause dangerous cardiac
dysrhythmias.
Question 10.
A client has severe hypokalemia. Which assessment is most important?
A. Cardiac rhythm
B. Skin color
C. Visual acuity
D. Bowel sounds only
Correct Answer: A. Cardiac rhythm
Explanation: Potassium abnormalities can significantly affect cardiac conduction. Severe
hypokalemia increases the risk of dysrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring a priority.
Question 11.
Which finding is most characteristic of hypocalcemia?
PACKET GOES WITH YOU EVERYWHERE/STUDY 24/7!!!
– COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
VERIFIED AND WELL-DETAILED ANSWERS | DETAILED
EXPLANATIONS AND RATIONALES | COMPLETE EXAM
PREPARATION STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE QUESTIONS |
LATEST EXAM UPDATE
CORE DOMAINS
1. Prioritization, Clinical Judgment, and Emergency Nursing
2. Delegation, Assignment, and Management of Care
3. Infection Prevention, Isolation, and Infectious Diseases
4. Fluid, Electrolyte, Acid–Base, and Shock Management
5. Pharmacology, Medication Safety, and Adverse Effects
6. Adult Health and Medical-Surgical Nursing
7. Maternal, Pediatric, and Geriatric Nursing Concepts
8. Nutrition, Therapeutic Diets, and Patient Education
9. Ethical, Legal, Cultural, and Professional Nursing Practice
10. NCLEX-Style Clinical Judgment and Test-Taking Strategies
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–50
Question 1.
The nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 6/10
B. A client with pneumonia whose oxygen saturation is 84% despite oxygen therapy
C. A client awaiting discharge instructions
D. A client requesting assistance with bathing
,Correct Answer: B. A client with pneumonia whose oxygen saturation is 84% despite
oxygen therapy
Explanation: An oxygen saturation of 84% despite oxygen therapy indicates significant
impaired oxygenation and possible respiratory deterioration. Airway and breathing problems
take priority over pain, discharge teaching, and hygiene needs.
Question 2.
Which assessment finding most strongly suggests an immediate airway problem?
A. Inspiratory stridor
B. Mild tachycardia
C. Temperature of 38°C
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: A. Inspiratory stridor
Explanation: Stridor indicates upper-airway narrowing and can rapidly progress to complete
airway obstruction. It requires immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 3.
A nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops facial drooping and slurred speech.
What is the priority action?
A. Give the client oral fluids
B. Place the client in a supine position
C. Activate the facility's stroke response and determine the time symptoms began
D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct Answer: C. Activate the facility's stroke response and determine the time
symptoms began
Explanation: Sudden focal neurological deficits suggest an acute stroke. Rapid evaluation is
essential because treatment options depend heavily on the time of symptom onset.
Question 4.
Which finding is most concerning in a client receiving opioid analgesia?
A. Respiratory rate of 8/min
B. Pain rating of 4/10
C. Mild nausea
D. Drowsiness after activity
Correct Answer: A. Respiratory rate of 8/min
,Explanation: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 8/min is
dangerously low and requires immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 5.
Which task is generally appropriate for a registered nurse to delegate to an experienced
nursing assistant?
A. Initial assessment of a newly admitted client
B. Teaching insulin injection technique
C. Obtaining routine vital signs on a stable client
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication
Correct Answer: C. Obtaining routine vital signs on a stable client
Explanation: Routine data collection for a stable client may be delegated to appropriately
trained assistive personnel. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation remain nursing
responsibilities.
Question 6.
Which client is most appropriate for assignment to a practical/vocational nurse when
consistent with state law and facility policy?
A. A newly admitted unstable client
B. A stable client requiring routine medication administration and wound care
C. A client experiencing sudden chest pain
D. A client requiring initial discharge teaching
Correct Answer: B. A stable client requiring routine medication administration and wound
care
Explanation: Practical/vocational nurses may care for stable clients with predictable
outcomes within their scope. Unstable assessment, initial teaching, and rapidly changing
conditions require higher-level nursing judgment.
Question 7.
Which intervention is most effective for preventing transmission of infection?
A. Wearing gloves for every client interaction
B. Performing hand hygiene at appropriate times
C. Keeping the client's door closed at all times
D. Administering antibiotics prophylactically
Correct Answer: B. Performing hand hygiene at appropriate times
Explanation: Hand hygiene is one of the most effective methods for preventing healthcare-
associated infection. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene.
, Question 8.
A client with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis is admitted. Which precaution is
appropriate?
A. Contact precautions only
B. Droplet precautions only
C. Airborne precautions
D. Protective isolation
Correct Answer: C. Airborne precautions
Explanation: Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles. Appropriate
airborne precautions include a properly fitted respirator and an appropriate isolation
environment.
Question 9.
Which laboratory finding is most consistent with hyperkalemia?
A. Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
B. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
C. Potassium 5.9 mEq/L
D. Sodium 138 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C. Potassium 5.9 mEq/L
Explanation: Normal serum potassium is approximately 3.5–5.0 mEq/L, although laboratory
ranges vary. A level of 5.9 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can cause dangerous cardiac
dysrhythmias.
Question 10.
A client has severe hypokalemia. Which assessment is most important?
A. Cardiac rhythm
B. Skin color
C. Visual acuity
D. Bowel sounds only
Correct Answer: A. Cardiac rhythm
Explanation: Potassium abnormalities can significantly affect cardiac conduction. Severe
hypokalemia increases the risk of dysrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring a priority.
Question 11.
Which finding is most characteristic of hypocalcemia?
