NURS 5220 Advanced Health Assessment Test 2 - University of
Texas at Arlington (UTA) | Complete Exam Test Bank with ,100%
Verified Correct Answers and Detailed Explanations| Latest
Update - 2026/2027 | Already Graded A+
1. Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for higher cognitive
functions such as reasoning, memory, judgment, and interpretation of
sensory information?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Spinal cord
Correct Answer: B. Cerebrum
Explanation: The cerebrum is responsible for higher cortical functions,
including cognition, reasoning, language, memory, judgment, voluntary motor
activity, and interpretation of sensory information. During an advanced
neurologic assessment, abnormalities in these functions can provide
important clues about cortical dysfunction.
2. Which structure is primarily responsible for maintaining balance,
coordination, and fine control of voluntary movement?
A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Frontal lobe
D. Medulla
Correct Answer: A. Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, balance,
posture, and motor precision. A patient with cerebellar dysfunction may
demonstrate an unsteady gait, dysmetria, intention tremor, or difficulty
performing coordinated movements such as the finger-to-nose test.
pg. 1
,3. Which cranial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to identify
familiar odors?
A. CN I
B. CN II
C. CN V
D. CN VIII
Correct Answer: A. CN I
Explanation: Cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve and is responsible for the
sense of smell. Testing can involve identifying familiar, nonirritating odors in
each nostril separately when clinically appropriate. Loss of smell can occur
with nasal disease, head trauma, neurologic disorders, and other conditions.
4. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for vision?
A. CN I
B. CN II
C. CN III
D. CN VII
Correct Answer: B. CN II
Explanation: Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve and carries visual information
from the retina to the brain. Assessment includes visual acuity and visual
fields, while the optic nerve also contributes to the afferent limb of the
pupillary light reflex.
5. When assessing extraocular movements, which cranial nerves are
primarily evaluated?
A. CN II, V, and VII
B. CN III, IV, and VI
pg. 2
,C. CN V, VII, and VIII
D. CN IX, X, and XII
Correct Answer: B. CN III, IV, and VI
Explanation: Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI control the extraocular muscles
responsible for coordinated eye movement. Assessment of the six cardinal
fields of gaze helps identify ophthalmoplegia, diplopia, or abnormal eye
movements associated with neurologic disease.
6. Which cranial nerve is assessed when the examiner asks the patient to
clench the teeth and evaluates facial sensation?
A. CN III
B. CN V
C. CN VII
D. CN XII
Correct Answer: B. CN V
Explanation: The trigeminal nerve, CN V, provides sensation to much of the
face and motor innervation to the muscles of mastication. Motor function can
be assessed by having the patient clench the jaw, while sensory function can
be evaluated across the three major divisions of the nerve.
7. Which finding would be MOST concerning for an upper motor neuron
lesion during neurologic assessment?
A. Flaccid muscle tone
B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
C. Hyperreflexia with a positive Babinski response
D. Muscle fasciculations only
Correct Answer: C. Hyperreflexia with a positive Babinski response
Explanation: Upper motor neuron lesions commonly produce increased
muscle tone, hyperreflexia, and pathologic reflexes such as a positive Babinski
pg. 3
, sign in adults. These findings suggest disruption of descending motor
pathways rather than a primary peripheral nerve or lower motor neuron
problem.
8. When testing the plantar reflex in an adult, which response is
considered normal?
A. Extension of the great toe with fanning of the other toes
B. Flexion of the toes
C. No movement in either foot
D. Rapid ankle clonus
Correct Answer: B. Flexion of the toes
Explanation: A normal adult plantar response is downward flexion of the
toes when the lateral sole is stimulated. Extension of the great toe with
fanning of the other toes, known as a positive Babinski response, is abnormal
in adults and may indicate an upper motor neuron lesion.
9. Which finding is MOST consistent with peripheral neuropathy
affecting the lower extremities?
A. Loss of sensation in a stocking distribution
B. Unilateral visual-field loss
C. Expressive aphasia
D. Nuchal rigidity
Correct Answer: A. Loss of sensation in a stocking distribution
Explanation: Peripheral polyneuropathies commonly produce sensory
changes in a distal symmetric pattern, often described as a “stocking”
distribution in the feet and lower legs. Patients may report numbness,
burning, tingling, or decreased sensation.
10. Which test is MOST useful for assessing cerebellar coordination?
pg. 4
Texas at Arlington (UTA) | Complete Exam Test Bank with ,100%
Verified Correct Answers and Detailed Explanations| Latest
Update - 2026/2027 | Already Graded A+
1. Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for higher cognitive
functions such as reasoning, memory, judgment, and interpretation of
sensory information?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Spinal cord
Correct Answer: B. Cerebrum
Explanation: The cerebrum is responsible for higher cortical functions,
including cognition, reasoning, language, memory, judgment, voluntary motor
activity, and interpretation of sensory information. During an advanced
neurologic assessment, abnormalities in these functions can provide
important clues about cortical dysfunction.
2. Which structure is primarily responsible for maintaining balance,
coordination, and fine control of voluntary movement?
A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Frontal lobe
D. Medulla
Correct Answer: A. Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, balance,
posture, and motor precision. A patient with cerebellar dysfunction may
demonstrate an unsteady gait, dysmetria, intention tremor, or difficulty
performing coordinated movements such as the finger-to-nose test.
pg. 1
,3. Which cranial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to identify
familiar odors?
A. CN I
B. CN II
C. CN V
D. CN VIII
Correct Answer: A. CN I
Explanation: Cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve and is responsible for the
sense of smell. Testing can involve identifying familiar, nonirritating odors in
each nostril separately when clinically appropriate. Loss of smell can occur
with nasal disease, head trauma, neurologic disorders, and other conditions.
4. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for vision?
A. CN I
B. CN II
C. CN III
D. CN VII
Correct Answer: B. CN II
Explanation: Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve and carries visual information
from the retina to the brain. Assessment includes visual acuity and visual
fields, while the optic nerve also contributes to the afferent limb of the
pupillary light reflex.
5. When assessing extraocular movements, which cranial nerves are
primarily evaluated?
A. CN II, V, and VII
B. CN III, IV, and VI
pg. 2
,C. CN V, VII, and VIII
D. CN IX, X, and XII
Correct Answer: B. CN III, IV, and VI
Explanation: Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI control the extraocular muscles
responsible for coordinated eye movement. Assessment of the six cardinal
fields of gaze helps identify ophthalmoplegia, diplopia, or abnormal eye
movements associated with neurologic disease.
6. Which cranial nerve is assessed when the examiner asks the patient to
clench the teeth and evaluates facial sensation?
A. CN III
B. CN V
C. CN VII
D. CN XII
Correct Answer: B. CN V
Explanation: The trigeminal nerve, CN V, provides sensation to much of the
face and motor innervation to the muscles of mastication. Motor function can
be assessed by having the patient clench the jaw, while sensory function can
be evaluated across the three major divisions of the nerve.
7. Which finding would be MOST concerning for an upper motor neuron
lesion during neurologic assessment?
A. Flaccid muscle tone
B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
C. Hyperreflexia with a positive Babinski response
D. Muscle fasciculations only
Correct Answer: C. Hyperreflexia with a positive Babinski response
Explanation: Upper motor neuron lesions commonly produce increased
muscle tone, hyperreflexia, and pathologic reflexes such as a positive Babinski
pg. 3
, sign in adults. These findings suggest disruption of descending motor
pathways rather than a primary peripheral nerve or lower motor neuron
problem.
8. When testing the plantar reflex in an adult, which response is
considered normal?
A. Extension of the great toe with fanning of the other toes
B. Flexion of the toes
C. No movement in either foot
D. Rapid ankle clonus
Correct Answer: B. Flexion of the toes
Explanation: A normal adult plantar response is downward flexion of the
toes when the lateral sole is stimulated. Extension of the great toe with
fanning of the other toes, known as a positive Babinski response, is abnormal
in adults and may indicate an upper motor neuron lesion.
9. Which finding is MOST consistent with peripheral neuropathy
affecting the lower extremities?
A. Loss of sensation in a stocking distribution
B. Unilateral visual-field loss
C. Expressive aphasia
D. Nuchal rigidity
Correct Answer: A. Loss of sensation in a stocking distribution
Explanation: Peripheral polyneuropathies commonly produce sensory
changes in a distal symmetric pattern, often described as a “stocking”
distribution in the feet and lower legs. Patients may report numbness,
burning, tingling, or decreased sensation.
10. Which test is MOST useful for assessing cerebellar coordination?
pg. 4
