EMT EXAM 2 — Chapters 9-13 (JBL) | 2026/2027 Practice Exam 50 Questions
EMT EXAM 2 CHAP 9-13 (JBL)
QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS — 2026/2027
Ch. 9 Patient Assessment · Ch. 10 Airway Management · Ch. 11 Pharmacology · Ch. 12 Shock ·
Chapters Covered:
Ch. 13 BLS Resuscitation
Total Questions: 50 (12 + 12 + 10 + 8 + 8)
Cognitive Mix: 25% Recall · 50% Application · 25% Analysis (NREMT-aligned)
Format: Multiple choice, single best answer. Correct answers and rationales follow each question.
Section 1: Patient Assessment (Chapter 9)
Q1: You arrive at the scene of a 64-year-old male who collapsed in his yard. After ensuring scene safety and taking
BSI precautions, what is the FIRST step of the primary assessment?
A. Obtain a complete SAMPLE history from bystanders.
B. Form a general impression of the patient as you approach. [CORRECT]
C. Assess the patient's blood pressure and pulse oximetry.
D. Perform a rapid trauma assessment of the head and chest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The JBL EMT textbook defines the primary assessment sequence as: form a general impression, assess level of
consciousness (AVPU), identify life threats, assess airway, assess breathing, and assess circulation. The general impression
is formed immediately upon patient contact, before vital signs or detailed history. Options A, C, and D belong to the
secondary assessment and would delay recognition of immediately life-threatening conditions per NREMT standards.
Q2: During transport, a 56-year-old female trauma patient who was previously breathing adequately begins to
develop marked respiratory distress with marked stridor. What is your MOST important immediate action?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate on the nonrebreather mask.
B. Reassess the airway for obstruction or compromise. [CORRECT]
C. Reposition the patient into a Fowler's position.
D. Begin positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per the JBL Patient Assessment chapter, any change in respiratory status after the primary assessment mandates
immediate reassessment of the airway FIRST, because airway compromise is the most rapidly fatal problem and is often
missed when breathing appears adequate initially. Increasing oxygen (A) or repositioning (C) treats symptoms without
identifying cause; BVM ventilation (D) may be necessary only after confirming the airway is patent.
Page 1 | Jones & Bartlett Learning EMT Textbook — Practice Exam 2026/2027
,EMT EXAM 2 — Chapters 9-13 (JBL) | 2026/2027 Practice Exam 50 Questions
Q3: A 72-year-old male with a history of COPD is found sitting upright in a chair, leaning forward with his elbows
on his knees, using accessory muscles to breathe. This positioning MOST accurately indicates:
A. Signs of impending cardiac arrest.
B. Positional compensation for hypotension.
C. The tripod position, indicating severe respiratory distress. [CORRECT]
D. Normal posture for a patient with chronic COPD.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The tripod position is a classic compensatory posture described in JBL Chapter 9: the patient leans forward and
supports the upper body on outstretched arms to maximize accessory muscle use and diaphragmatic excursion, signaling
significant respiratory distress. While COPD patients commonly lean forward, this posture is never 'normal' (D) and
indicates an acute or worsening exacerbation requiring immediate intervention per NREMT assessment standards.
Q4: Which of the following represents the correct order of the primary assessment components after forming a
general impression?
A. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure [CORRECT]
B. Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Disability, Exposure
C. Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Exposure, Disability
D. Disability, Airway, Circulation, Breathing, Exposure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The JBL primary assessment follows the ABCDE sequence: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability (mental
status/AVPU), and Exposure/Environment. This order prioritizes the most rapidly fatal threats first - an obstructed airway
will kill a patient in minutes, before breathing or circulation failures. NREMT exam items test this sequence rigorously, and
any reordering reflects inappropriate prioritization.
Q5: When performing a rapid trauma assessment on a supine patient with a significant mechanism of injury, the
posterior body is assessed:
A. First, before examining the anterior chest.
B. Immediately after assessing the anterior chest.
C. Last, after rolling the patient onto their side with spinal precautions. [CORRECT]
D. Only if the patient complains of back pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The JBL rapid trauma assessment proceeds head-to-toe on the anterior body first, and the posterior body is
assessed LAST, using a log roll while maintaining spinal motion restriction. The posterior is examined for all trauma
patients with significant mechanism, not only those with back pain (D), because life-threatening posterior wounds (such as
penetrating injuries or significant bruising) may be otherwise missed.
Page 2 | Jones & Bartlett Learning EMT Textbook — Practice Exam 2026/2027
, EMT EXAM 2 — Chapters 9-13 (JBL) | 2026/2027 Practice Exam 50 Questions
Q6: You are assessing a conscious 48-year-old female. When you ask her to open her eyes, she does so slowly and
responds to your questions with confused, inappropriate words. On the AVPU scale, this patient's mental status is
BEST documented as:
A. Alert
B. Responds to Verbal stimuli [CORRECT]
C. Responds to Painful stimuli
D. Unresponsive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AVPU categorizes mental status as Alert (eyes open spontaneously, oriented), responds to Verbal (opens eyes or
responds when spoken to but is confused or inappropriate), responds to Painful (only reacts to painful stimulus), and
Unresponsive (no response to any stimulus). This patient, who requires verbal stimulation and exhibits confusion, falls into
the 'V' category per JBL Chapter 9. Option A requires full orientation; options C and D indicate more severe depression of
consciousness.
Q7: When measuring a patient's blood pressure by auscultation, the diastolic pressure is recorded as:
A. The point at which the first clear tapping sound is heard.
B. The point at which the cuff is fully inflated.
C. The point at which the sounds completely disappear. [CORRECT]
D. The average of the highest and lowest readings.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The JBL Patient Assessment chapter specifies that the systolic pressure is recorded at the first clear Korotkoff
sound (tapping) as the cuff is deflated, and the diastolic pressure is recorded at the point where the sounds completely
disappear (or, in some patients, where they muffle). Option A describes systolic; option B is incorrect because inflation
above systolic is what occludes flow; option D is not a valid blood pressure measurement technique.
Q8: Which of the following findings would be MOST concerning when assessing a patient's radial pulse?
A. A pulse rate of 88 beats per minute in a resting adult.
B. A pulse that is strong and regular at 72 beats per minute.
C. A weak, thready radial pulse at 124 beats per minute. [CORRECT]
D. A pulse that is bounding and regular at 64 beats per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A weak, thready radial pulse with tachycardia indicates poor peripheral perfusion, often an early sign of shock.
The JBL textbook emphasizes that pulse quality (strength) is as important as rate - a weak radial pulse suggests the systolic
blood pressure has fallen below approximately 80-90 mmHg. Tachycardia at 124 bpm further supports compromised
perfusion. The other options describe normal or strong pulses with appropriate rates.
Page 3 | Jones & Bartlett Learning EMT Textbook — Practice Exam 2026/2027
EMT EXAM 2 CHAP 9-13 (JBL)
QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS — 2026/2027
Ch. 9 Patient Assessment · Ch. 10 Airway Management · Ch. 11 Pharmacology · Ch. 12 Shock ·
Chapters Covered:
Ch. 13 BLS Resuscitation
Total Questions: 50 (12 + 12 + 10 + 8 + 8)
Cognitive Mix: 25% Recall · 50% Application · 25% Analysis (NREMT-aligned)
Format: Multiple choice, single best answer. Correct answers and rationales follow each question.
Section 1: Patient Assessment (Chapter 9)
Q1: You arrive at the scene of a 64-year-old male who collapsed in his yard. After ensuring scene safety and taking
BSI precautions, what is the FIRST step of the primary assessment?
A. Obtain a complete SAMPLE history from bystanders.
B. Form a general impression of the patient as you approach. [CORRECT]
C. Assess the patient's blood pressure and pulse oximetry.
D. Perform a rapid trauma assessment of the head and chest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The JBL EMT textbook defines the primary assessment sequence as: form a general impression, assess level of
consciousness (AVPU), identify life threats, assess airway, assess breathing, and assess circulation. The general impression
is formed immediately upon patient contact, before vital signs or detailed history. Options A, C, and D belong to the
secondary assessment and would delay recognition of immediately life-threatening conditions per NREMT standards.
Q2: During transport, a 56-year-old female trauma patient who was previously breathing adequately begins to
develop marked respiratory distress with marked stridor. What is your MOST important immediate action?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate on the nonrebreather mask.
B. Reassess the airway for obstruction or compromise. [CORRECT]
C. Reposition the patient into a Fowler's position.
D. Begin positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per the JBL Patient Assessment chapter, any change in respiratory status after the primary assessment mandates
immediate reassessment of the airway FIRST, because airway compromise is the most rapidly fatal problem and is often
missed when breathing appears adequate initially. Increasing oxygen (A) or repositioning (C) treats symptoms without
identifying cause; BVM ventilation (D) may be necessary only after confirming the airway is patent.
Page 1 | Jones & Bartlett Learning EMT Textbook — Practice Exam 2026/2027
,EMT EXAM 2 — Chapters 9-13 (JBL) | 2026/2027 Practice Exam 50 Questions
Q3: A 72-year-old male with a history of COPD is found sitting upright in a chair, leaning forward with his elbows
on his knees, using accessory muscles to breathe. This positioning MOST accurately indicates:
A. Signs of impending cardiac arrest.
B. Positional compensation for hypotension.
C. The tripod position, indicating severe respiratory distress. [CORRECT]
D. Normal posture for a patient with chronic COPD.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The tripod position is a classic compensatory posture described in JBL Chapter 9: the patient leans forward and
supports the upper body on outstretched arms to maximize accessory muscle use and diaphragmatic excursion, signaling
significant respiratory distress. While COPD patients commonly lean forward, this posture is never 'normal' (D) and
indicates an acute or worsening exacerbation requiring immediate intervention per NREMT assessment standards.
Q4: Which of the following represents the correct order of the primary assessment components after forming a
general impression?
A. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure [CORRECT]
B. Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Disability, Exposure
C. Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Exposure, Disability
D. Disability, Airway, Circulation, Breathing, Exposure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The JBL primary assessment follows the ABCDE sequence: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability (mental
status/AVPU), and Exposure/Environment. This order prioritizes the most rapidly fatal threats first - an obstructed airway
will kill a patient in minutes, before breathing or circulation failures. NREMT exam items test this sequence rigorously, and
any reordering reflects inappropriate prioritization.
Q5: When performing a rapid trauma assessment on a supine patient with a significant mechanism of injury, the
posterior body is assessed:
A. First, before examining the anterior chest.
B. Immediately after assessing the anterior chest.
C. Last, after rolling the patient onto their side with spinal precautions. [CORRECT]
D. Only if the patient complains of back pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The JBL rapid trauma assessment proceeds head-to-toe on the anterior body first, and the posterior body is
assessed LAST, using a log roll while maintaining spinal motion restriction. The posterior is examined for all trauma
patients with significant mechanism, not only those with back pain (D), because life-threatening posterior wounds (such as
penetrating injuries or significant bruising) may be otherwise missed.
Page 2 | Jones & Bartlett Learning EMT Textbook — Practice Exam 2026/2027
, EMT EXAM 2 — Chapters 9-13 (JBL) | 2026/2027 Practice Exam 50 Questions
Q6: You are assessing a conscious 48-year-old female. When you ask her to open her eyes, she does so slowly and
responds to your questions with confused, inappropriate words. On the AVPU scale, this patient's mental status is
BEST documented as:
A. Alert
B. Responds to Verbal stimuli [CORRECT]
C. Responds to Painful stimuli
D. Unresponsive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AVPU categorizes mental status as Alert (eyes open spontaneously, oriented), responds to Verbal (opens eyes or
responds when spoken to but is confused or inappropriate), responds to Painful (only reacts to painful stimulus), and
Unresponsive (no response to any stimulus). This patient, who requires verbal stimulation and exhibits confusion, falls into
the 'V' category per JBL Chapter 9. Option A requires full orientation; options C and D indicate more severe depression of
consciousness.
Q7: When measuring a patient's blood pressure by auscultation, the diastolic pressure is recorded as:
A. The point at which the first clear tapping sound is heard.
B. The point at which the cuff is fully inflated.
C. The point at which the sounds completely disappear. [CORRECT]
D. The average of the highest and lowest readings.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The JBL Patient Assessment chapter specifies that the systolic pressure is recorded at the first clear Korotkoff
sound (tapping) as the cuff is deflated, and the diastolic pressure is recorded at the point where the sounds completely
disappear (or, in some patients, where they muffle). Option A describes systolic; option B is incorrect because inflation
above systolic is what occludes flow; option D is not a valid blood pressure measurement technique.
Q8: Which of the following findings would be MOST concerning when assessing a patient's radial pulse?
A. A pulse rate of 88 beats per minute in a resting adult.
B. A pulse that is strong and regular at 72 beats per minute.
C. A weak, thready radial pulse at 124 beats per minute. [CORRECT]
D. A pulse that is bounding and regular at 64 beats per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A weak, thready radial pulse with tachycardia indicates poor peripheral perfusion, often an early sign of shock.
The JBL textbook emphasizes that pulse quality (strength) is as important as rate - a weak radial pulse suggests the systolic
blood pressure has fallen below approximately 80-90 mmHg. Tachycardia at 124 bpm further supports compromised
perfusion. The other options describe normal or strong pulses with appropriate rates.
Page 3 | Jones & Bartlett Learning EMT Textbook — Practice Exam 2026/2027
