Exam 2026/2027 Practice Questions & Study
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Correct Detailed Answers & Rationales
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Question 1
A 52-year-old patient presents with a persistent, non-scrapable
white lesion on the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion has
been present for six weeks and cannot be attributed to trauma,
tobacco use, or a local irritant. What is the most appropriate
next step?
A. Reassure the patient and review in one year
B. Prescribe an antifungal medication
C. Arrange appropriate biopsy or specialist assessment
D. Recommend vigorous tongue brushing
Answer: C. Arrange appropriate biopsy or specialist
assessment
Rationale: A persistent unexplained white lesion, particularly on
the lateral tongue, requires evaluation for potentially dysplastic
,or malignant disease. The lateral and ventrolateral tongue are
recognized high-risk oral sites. A lesion that persists after
removal of potential local causes should not simply be observed
indefinitely. Biopsy or referral for specialist assessment allows
histopathologic examination and determination of whether
epithelial dysplasia, carcinoma, or another disorder is present.
Antifungal therapy is inappropriate without evidence suggesting
candidiasis, and mechanical brushing does not address a
persistent non-scrapable lesion.
Question 2
Which clinical feature most strongly favors pseudomembranous
oral candidiasis over a keratotic white lesion?
A. Firm adherence to underlying mucosa
B. Persistence despite gentle wiping
C. A white plaque that can be wiped away, leaving an
erythematous surface
D. Localization exclusively to the lateral tongue
Answer: C. A white plaque that can be wiped away, leaving an
erythematous surface
Rationale: Pseudomembranous candidiasis classically produces
creamy or curd-like white plaques that can usually be removed
with gentle scraping or wiping. Removal often reveals an
,erythematous or sometimes mildly bleeding mucosal surface. In
contrast, true keratotic lesions such as frictional keratosis and
leukoplakia generally cannot be removed by wiping. Clinical
context, including recent antibiotics, immunosuppression,
xerostomia, dentures, or diabetes, can further support
candidiasis.
Question 3
A patient develops recurrent painful ulcers on the non-
keratinized oral mucosa. The ulcers are round, shallow, have a
yellow-gray base, and are surrounded by an erythematous halo.
They heal without scarring. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Recurrent herpes simplex infection
B. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
C. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
D. Oral lichen planus
Answer: C. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
Rationale: Recurrent aphthous stomatitis typically affects non-
keratinized, freely movable mucosa such as the labial and
buccal mucosa, floor of the mouth, soft palate, and ventral
tongue. Minor aphthae are usually shallow, painful ulcers with a
yellow-white or gray base and surrounding erythema and heal
without scarring. Recurrent intraoral herpes simplex more
, commonly affects keratinized mucosa, particularly the hard
palate and attached gingiva. The clinical pattern therefore
strongly supports aphthous ulceration.
Question 4
Which finding is most characteristic of erythema multiforme
involving the oral cavity?
A. Slowly enlarging solitary indurated ulcer
B. Acute mucosal ulceration with hemorrhagic crusting of the
lips
C. Bilateral reticular white striae
D. A persistent asymptomatic homogeneous white plaque
Answer: B. Acute mucosal ulceration with hemorrhagic
crusting of the lips
Rationale: Erythema multiforme is an acute immune-mediated
mucocutaneous disorder that can produce extensive oral
erosions and ulcerations. Severe oral involvement may cause
prominent hemorrhagic crusting of the lips, making this finding
particularly useful clinically. Cutaneous targetoid lesions may or
may not be present. Reticular white striae suggest oral lichen
planus, whereas a persistent white plaque represents a different
diagnostic category. A solitary indurated ulcer requires
evaluation for other causes, including malignancy.