Page 1 of 90
NURS 5432 FNP I MIDTERM – 2026 FAMILY NURSE
PRACTITIONER COMPLETE (200) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NURS
Prepare for the NURS 5432 FNP I Midterm – Family Nurse Practitioner with this
comprehensive study resource designed to reinforce essential family nurse
practitioner concepts, advanced health assessment, differential diagnosis, primary
care management, pharmacology, evidence-based treatment planning, health
promotion, and disease prevention. This document helps you review key topics,
assess your understanding, and identify areas that may require additional study
before the midterm exam. Use it to strengthen your advanced practice nursing
knowledge and build confidence through focused, organized preparation. An
excellent companion for successful NURS 5432 FNP I Midterm preparation.
Multiple choice.
Question 1
A 25-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of dysuria, frequency, and urgency.
She is not pregnant. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. What is
the most appropriate antibiotic for uncomplicated cystitis?
A. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID for 3 days
B. Nitrofurantoin 100 mg BID for 5 days
C. Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 7 days
D. Amoxicillin 500 mg TID for 7 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: First-line for uncomplicated cystitis: nitrofurantoin (5 days), TMP-SMX (3
days), or fosfomycin (single dose). Fluoroquinolones are reserved for pyelonephritis or
resistance.
Question 2
A 55-year-old male with a 40-pack-year smoking history presents with a new cough and
hemoptysis. Chest X-ray shows a left hilar mass. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Sputum cytology
B. CT chest with contrast
, Page 2 of 90
C. PET scan
D. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After abnormal chest X-ray, CT chest is next to characterize the mass and
guide biopsy. Bronchoscopy or biopsy follows CT findings.
Question 3
A 30-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and right lower
quadrant pain. She is not pregnant. On exam, she has RLQ tenderness with guarding
and rebound. WBC is 15,000. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. CT abdomen/pelvis with contrast
B. Pelvic ultrasound
C. Laparoscopy
D. Observation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suspected appendicitis – CT abdomen/pelvis is first-line in adults. Ultrasound
is used in children and pregnant women.
Question 4
A 35-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 155/95
mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. She denies headache or visual changes. What is the most
appropriate next step?
A. Admit for magnesium sulfate
B. Outpatient labetalol and close follow-up
, Page 3 of 90
C. Immediate cesarean section
D. Methyldopa and home monitoring
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preeclampsia at 32 weeks requires hospital admission for monitoring, blood
pressure control, and fetal assessment. Delivery if severe features develop.
Question 5
A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a 3-month history of bilateral
burning foot pain worse at night. He has reduced pinprick sensation distally. What is the
first-line medication?
A. Gabapentin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Oxycodone
D. Topical capsaicin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Painful diabetic neuropathy: first-line gabapentin, pregabalin, duloxetine, or
amitriptyline. Gabapentin is often preferred due to tolerability.
Question 6
A 68-year-old female with osteoporosis presents with acute onset of severe low back
pain after bending. X-ray shows an L1 compression fracture. She has no neurologic
deficits. What is the most appropriate initial pain management?
A. Acetaminophen and heat
B. Opioid analgesics
, Page 4 of 90
C. NSAIDs
D. Vertebroplasty
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute vertebral fracture causes severe pain often requiring opioids initially.
NSAIDs are used cautiously. Vertebroplasty for refractory pain.
Question 7
A 25-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of fever, sore throat, and tender
anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. He has no cough. Rapid strep test is positive. What
is the first-line antibiotic?
A. Penicillin VK
B. Azithromycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Penicillin VK or amoxicillin is first-line for Group A strep pharyngitis to prevent
rheumatic fever.
Question 8
A 55-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of dry eyes, dry mouth, and joint
pain. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most specific antibody for
Sjögren's syndrome?
A. Anti-SSA (Ro)
B. Anti-SSB (La)
NURS 5432 FNP I MIDTERM – 2026 FAMILY NURSE
PRACTITIONER COMPLETE (200) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NURS
Prepare for the NURS 5432 FNP I Midterm – Family Nurse Practitioner with this
comprehensive study resource designed to reinforce essential family nurse
practitioner concepts, advanced health assessment, differential diagnosis, primary
care management, pharmacology, evidence-based treatment planning, health
promotion, and disease prevention. This document helps you review key topics,
assess your understanding, and identify areas that may require additional study
before the midterm exam. Use it to strengthen your advanced practice nursing
knowledge and build confidence through focused, organized preparation. An
excellent companion for successful NURS 5432 FNP I Midterm preparation.
Multiple choice.
Question 1
A 25-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of dysuria, frequency, and urgency.
She is not pregnant. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. What is
the most appropriate antibiotic for uncomplicated cystitis?
A. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID for 3 days
B. Nitrofurantoin 100 mg BID for 5 days
C. Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 7 days
D. Amoxicillin 500 mg TID for 7 days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: First-line for uncomplicated cystitis: nitrofurantoin (5 days), TMP-SMX (3
days), or fosfomycin (single dose). Fluoroquinolones are reserved for pyelonephritis or
resistance.
Question 2
A 55-year-old male with a 40-pack-year smoking history presents with a new cough and
hemoptysis. Chest X-ray shows a left hilar mass. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Sputum cytology
B. CT chest with contrast
, Page 2 of 90
C. PET scan
D. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After abnormal chest X-ray, CT chest is next to characterize the mass and
guide biopsy. Bronchoscopy or biopsy follows CT findings.
Question 3
A 30-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and right lower
quadrant pain. She is not pregnant. On exam, she has RLQ tenderness with guarding
and rebound. WBC is 15,000. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. CT abdomen/pelvis with contrast
B. Pelvic ultrasound
C. Laparoscopy
D. Observation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Suspected appendicitis – CT abdomen/pelvis is first-line in adults. Ultrasound
is used in children and pregnant women.
Question 4
A 35-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 155/95
mmHg and 2+ proteinuria. She denies headache or visual changes. What is the most
appropriate next step?
A. Admit for magnesium sulfate
B. Outpatient labetalol and close follow-up
, Page 3 of 90
C. Immediate cesarean section
D. Methyldopa and home monitoring
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preeclampsia at 32 weeks requires hospital admission for monitoring, blood
pressure control, and fetal assessment. Delivery if severe features develop.
Question 5
A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a 3-month history of bilateral
burning foot pain worse at night. He has reduced pinprick sensation distally. What is the
first-line medication?
A. Gabapentin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Oxycodone
D. Topical capsaicin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Painful diabetic neuropathy: first-line gabapentin, pregabalin, duloxetine, or
amitriptyline. Gabapentin is often preferred due to tolerability.
Question 6
A 68-year-old female with osteoporosis presents with acute onset of severe low back
pain after bending. X-ray shows an L1 compression fracture. She has no neurologic
deficits. What is the most appropriate initial pain management?
A. Acetaminophen and heat
B. Opioid analgesics
, Page 4 of 90
C. NSAIDs
D. Vertebroplasty
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute vertebral fracture causes severe pain often requiring opioids initially.
NSAIDs are used cautiously. Vertebroplasty for refractory pain.
Question 7
A 25-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of fever, sore throat, and tender
anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. He has no cough. Rapid strep test is positive. What
is the first-line antibiotic?
A. Penicillin VK
B. Azithromycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Penicillin VK or amoxicillin is first-line for Group A strep pharyngitis to prevent
rheumatic fever.
Question 8
A 55-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of dry eyes, dry mouth, and joint
pain. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most specific antibody for
Sjögren's syndrome?
A. Anti-SSA (Ro)
B. Anti-SSB (La)
