EMT FISDAP PARAMEDIC ENTRANCE EXAM – QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
Core Domains
1. Airway Management and Respiratory Emergencies
2. Cardiovascular Emergencies and Resuscitation
3. Medical Emergencies and Pathophysiology
4. Trauma Assessment and Management
5. Obstetrics, Gynecology, and Pediatrics
6. Pharmacology and Medication Administration
7. EMS Operations, Safety, and Incident Management
8. Legal, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues in EMS
9. Behavioral Emergencies and Crisis Intervention
10. Prehospital Documentation and Communication
Introduction
This comprehensive examination is designed to assess the knowledge, critical thinking, and clinical
decision-making skills essential for success on the EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam. The
assessment evaluates foundational theory in anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology, alongside
applied professional knowledge in emergency care protocols, pharmacology, and advanced airway
management. Candidates will encounter a combination of multiple-choice questions and scenario-based
items that emphasize real-world application, requiring the integration of clinical data, patient
presentation, and environmental factors to determine appropriate interventions. This exam also tests
understanding of legal and ethical responsibilities, regulatory compliance, and professional standards
that govern prehospital care. Each question is structured to mirror the complexity and rigor of the actual
entrance examination, ensuring candidates are well-prepared for the challenges of paramedic education
and practice.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 45-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe chest pain, diaphoresis, and nausea. His
ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads V1–V4. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial intervention?
A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Perform immediate synchronized cardioversion
C. Administer aspirin 324 mg chewed
D. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing
,🟢 C. Administer aspirin 324 mg chewed
🔴 Explanation: Aspirin is the initial antiplatelet therapy for suspected acute coronary syndrome
(STEMI). It reduces mortality and should be administered promptly unless contraindicated.
Nitroglycerin may be considered but is not the most critical initial intervention; synchronized
cardioversion is for unstable tachyarrhythmias; pacing is for bradyarrhythmias.
2. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer CPR in an adult cardiac
arrest patient?
A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 20:2
D. 5:1
🟢 B. 30:2
🔴 Explanation: For single-rescuer adult CPR, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is
30:2. This maximizes coronary perfusion pressure while providing adequate ventilation. The other
ratios are incorrect for adult single-rescuer CPR.
3. A paramedic student is assessing a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax. Which
assessment finding is most consistent with this condition?
A. Hyperresonance on percussion and absent breath sounds on the affected side
B. Dullness on percussion and bronchial breath sounds
C. Decreased tactile fremitus and crackles on auscultation
D. Egophony and whispered pectoriloquy
🟢 A. Hyperresonance on percussion and absent breath sounds on the affected side
🔴 Explanation: Tension pneumothorax presents with hyperresonance on percussion and absent
breath sounds on the affected side due to trapped air in the pleural space. Dullness suggests
hemothorax or consolidation; crackles are associated with pulmonary edema; egophony and
whispered pectoriloquy indicate consolidation.
4. A patient is experiencing anaphylaxis following a bee sting. Which medication should be
administered first?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Albuterol
,C. Epinephrine
D. Methylprednisolone
🟢 C. Epinephrine
🔴 Explanation: Epinephrine is the first-line medication for anaphylaxis, reversing bronchospasm,
vasodilation, and hypotension. Diphenhydramine and corticosteroids are adjunctive therapies;
albuterol treats bronchospasm but does not address hypotension or angioedema.
5. Which of the following ECG findings is most characteristic of hyperkalemia?
A. Widened QRS complex and peaked T waves
B. Prolonged PR interval and flattened T waves
C. Deep Q waves and ST-segment elevation
D. U waves and prolonged QT interval
🟢 A. Widened QRS complex and peaked T waves
🔴 Explanation: Hyperkalemia classically produces tall, peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes.
Flattened T waves suggest hypokalemia; deep Q waves and ST elevation indicate myocardial infarction;
U waves and prolonged QT are associated with hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia.
6. A 6-year-old child is in respiratory distress with a barking cough, stridor, and intercostal
retractions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial tracheitis
B. Epiglottitis
C. Croup
D. Foreign body aspiration
🟢 C. Croup
🔴 Explanation: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) presents with a barking cough, stridor, and
intercostal retractions in children aged 6 months to 6 years. Epiglottitis presents with drooling and a
toxic appearance; bacterial tracheitis is more severe with high fever; foreign body aspiration typically
has sudden onset without fever or barking cough.
7. What is the correct dosage of epinephrine for a 70 kg adult in cardiac arrest during resuscitation?
A. 1 mg of 1:1000 concentration IV
B. 1 mg of 1:10,000 concentration IV
, C. 0.5 mg of 1:1000 concentration IV
D. 0.1 mg of 1:10,000 concentration IV
🟢 B. 1 mg of 1:10,000 concentration IV
🔴 Explanation: During adult cardiac arrest, epinephrine is administered as 1 mg of 1:10,000
concentration IV (0.1 mg/mL) every 3–5 minutes. The 1:1000 concentration is used for anaphylaxis or
severe allergic reactions and should not be used undiluted in cardiac arrest.
8. An EMT is transporting a patient with an altered mental status. The patient has a history of
diabetes and is wearing a medical alert bracelet. Which of the following is the most important
immediate action?
A. Administer oral glucose
B. Check blood glucose level
C. Start an IV line
D. Administer glucagon
🟢 B. Check blood glucose level
🔴 Explanation: In a diabetic patient with altered mental status, checking blood glucose is the priority
to differentiate hypoglycemia from other causes. Oral glucose requires an intact gag reflex; glucagon is
given if IV access is unavailable; IV access is important but follows the assessment.
9. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive adult patient?
A. Foreign body
B. Edema
C. The tongue
D. Secretions
🟢 C. The tongue
🔴 Explanation: In an unresponsive adult, the most common cause of airway obstruction is the tongue
falling back against the posterior pharynx. This is corrected with head-tilt/chin-lift or jaw-thrust
maneuvers. Foreign bodies, edema, and secretions are less common causes in this scenario.
10. A 34-year-old female is 32 weeks pregnant and involved in a motor vehicle crash. She has a
seatbelt sign across her abdomen and reports abdominal pain. Which of the following is a priority
concern?
ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
Core Domains
1. Airway Management and Respiratory Emergencies
2. Cardiovascular Emergencies and Resuscitation
3. Medical Emergencies and Pathophysiology
4. Trauma Assessment and Management
5. Obstetrics, Gynecology, and Pediatrics
6. Pharmacology and Medication Administration
7. EMS Operations, Safety, and Incident Management
8. Legal, Ethical, and Regulatory Issues in EMS
9. Behavioral Emergencies and Crisis Intervention
10. Prehospital Documentation and Communication
Introduction
This comprehensive examination is designed to assess the knowledge, critical thinking, and clinical
decision-making skills essential for success on the EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam. The
assessment evaluates foundational theory in anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology, alongside
applied professional knowledge in emergency care protocols, pharmacology, and advanced airway
management. Candidates will encounter a combination of multiple-choice questions and scenario-based
items that emphasize real-world application, requiring the integration of clinical data, patient
presentation, and environmental factors to determine appropriate interventions. This exam also tests
understanding of legal and ethical responsibilities, regulatory compliance, and professional standards
that govern prehospital care. Each question is structured to mirror the complexity and rigor of the actual
entrance examination, ensuring candidates are well-prepared for the challenges of paramedic education
and practice.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A 45-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe chest pain, diaphoresis, and nausea. His
ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads V1–V4. Which of the following is the most appropriate
initial intervention?
A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Perform immediate synchronized cardioversion
C. Administer aspirin 324 mg chewed
D. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing
,🟢 C. Administer aspirin 324 mg chewed
🔴 Explanation: Aspirin is the initial antiplatelet therapy for suspected acute coronary syndrome
(STEMI). It reduces mortality and should be administered promptly unless contraindicated.
Nitroglycerin may be considered but is not the most critical initial intervention; synchronized
cardioversion is for unstable tachyarrhythmias; pacing is for bradyarrhythmias.
2. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer CPR in an adult cardiac
arrest patient?
A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 20:2
D. 5:1
🟢 B. 30:2
🔴 Explanation: For single-rescuer adult CPR, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is
30:2. This maximizes coronary perfusion pressure while providing adequate ventilation. The other
ratios are incorrect for adult single-rescuer CPR.
3. A paramedic student is assessing a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax. Which
assessment finding is most consistent with this condition?
A. Hyperresonance on percussion and absent breath sounds on the affected side
B. Dullness on percussion and bronchial breath sounds
C. Decreased tactile fremitus and crackles on auscultation
D. Egophony and whispered pectoriloquy
🟢 A. Hyperresonance on percussion and absent breath sounds on the affected side
🔴 Explanation: Tension pneumothorax presents with hyperresonance on percussion and absent
breath sounds on the affected side due to trapped air in the pleural space. Dullness suggests
hemothorax or consolidation; crackles are associated with pulmonary edema; egophony and
whispered pectoriloquy indicate consolidation.
4. A patient is experiencing anaphylaxis following a bee sting. Which medication should be
administered first?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Albuterol
,C. Epinephrine
D. Methylprednisolone
🟢 C. Epinephrine
🔴 Explanation: Epinephrine is the first-line medication for anaphylaxis, reversing bronchospasm,
vasodilation, and hypotension. Diphenhydramine and corticosteroids are adjunctive therapies;
albuterol treats bronchospasm but does not address hypotension or angioedema.
5. Which of the following ECG findings is most characteristic of hyperkalemia?
A. Widened QRS complex and peaked T waves
B. Prolonged PR interval and flattened T waves
C. Deep Q waves and ST-segment elevation
D. U waves and prolonged QT interval
🟢 A. Widened QRS complex and peaked T waves
🔴 Explanation: Hyperkalemia classically produces tall, peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes.
Flattened T waves suggest hypokalemia; deep Q waves and ST elevation indicate myocardial infarction;
U waves and prolonged QT are associated with hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia.
6. A 6-year-old child is in respiratory distress with a barking cough, stridor, and intercostal
retractions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial tracheitis
B. Epiglottitis
C. Croup
D. Foreign body aspiration
🟢 C. Croup
🔴 Explanation: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) presents with a barking cough, stridor, and
intercostal retractions in children aged 6 months to 6 years. Epiglottitis presents with drooling and a
toxic appearance; bacterial tracheitis is more severe with high fever; foreign body aspiration typically
has sudden onset without fever or barking cough.
7. What is the correct dosage of epinephrine for a 70 kg adult in cardiac arrest during resuscitation?
A. 1 mg of 1:1000 concentration IV
B. 1 mg of 1:10,000 concentration IV
, C. 0.5 mg of 1:1000 concentration IV
D. 0.1 mg of 1:10,000 concentration IV
🟢 B. 1 mg of 1:10,000 concentration IV
🔴 Explanation: During adult cardiac arrest, epinephrine is administered as 1 mg of 1:10,000
concentration IV (0.1 mg/mL) every 3–5 minutes. The 1:1000 concentration is used for anaphylaxis or
severe allergic reactions and should not be used undiluted in cardiac arrest.
8. An EMT is transporting a patient with an altered mental status. The patient has a history of
diabetes and is wearing a medical alert bracelet. Which of the following is the most important
immediate action?
A. Administer oral glucose
B. Check blood glucose level
C. Start an IV line
D. Administer glucagon
🟢 B. Check blood glucose level
🔴 Explanation: In a diabetic patient with altered mental status, checking blood glucose is the priority
to differentiate hypoglycemia from other causes. Oral glucose requires an intact gag reflex; glucagon is
given if IV access is unavailable; IV access is important but follows the assessment.
9. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive adult patient?
A. Foreign body
B. Edema
C. The tongue
D. Secretions
🟢 C. The tongue
🔴 Explanation: In an unresponsive adult, the most common cause of airway obstruction is the tongue
falling back against the posterior pharynx. This is corrected with head-tilt/chin-lift or jaw-thrust
maneuvers. Foreign bodies, edema, and secretions are less common causes in this scenario.
10. A 34-year-old female is 32 weeks pregnant and involved in a motor vehicle crash. She has a
seatbelt sign across her abdomen and reports abdominal pain. Which of the following is a priority
concern?
