CJE WOMEN’S HEALTH EXAM 2026-2027 | ALL QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS (CORRECT ANSWERS) PLUS DETAILED
RATIONALES | COMPLETE STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS |
DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF 2027-2028
1. A 24-year-old female presents for a routine wellness exam. Which screening intervention
is recommended for cervical cancer prevention according to current guidelines?
A. Annual Pap smear starting at age 18
B. Cervical cytology alone every 3 years starting at age 21
C. HPV co-testing alone every 5 years starting at age 21
D. Annual liquid-based cytology with reflex HPV testing
Cervical cancer screening guidelines recommend initiating cervical cytology alone every 3
years for women aged 21 to 29. HPV co-testing is not recommended for individuals under age
30 due to high rates of transient HPV infections that spontaneously resolve.
2. A 31-year-old patient reports severe dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, and dyspareunia.
Physical exam reveals painful nodularities on the uterosacral ligaments. What is the most
likely underlying diagnosis?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Endometriosis
C. Uterine leiomyomas
D. Ovarian cystadenoma
Endometriosis is characterized by the classic triad of dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and chronic
pelvic pain. Findings of tender nodularities along the uterosacral ligaments on bimanual
examination strongly support this diagnosis.
3. A nurse practitioner is evaluating a 28-year-old G1P0 at 10 weeks gestation for her first
prenatal visit. Which baseline laboratory test must be performed to assess for fetal risk of
hemolytic disease?
A. Maternal blood typing and Rh antibody screen
B. Hemoglobin A1c
C. Serum alpha-fetoprotein
D. Group B Streptococcus screen
Maternal ABO and Rh typing with an antibody screen determines the risk of Rh
isoimmunization and erythroblastosis fetalis. Identifying Rh-negative mothers early allows for
appropriate administration of Rho(D) immune globulin during pregnancy.
,4. A 48-year-old female reports irregular menstrual bleeding, hot flashes, and vaginal
dryness. Which serum laboratory finding is most characteristic of the perimenopausal
transition?
A. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone
B. Elevated follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Decreased luteinizing hormone
D. Elevated progesterone
During the perimenopausal transition, ovarian follicular depletion leads to decreased
estrogen production and loss of negative feedback to the pituitary gland, resulting in
significantly elevated levels of Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH).
5. A 19-year-old nulliparous female requests a highly effective, long-acting reversible
contraception (LARC) method that does not contain estrogen. Which option is most
suitable?
A. Ethinyl estradiol and etonogestrel vaginal ring
B. Levonorgestrel 52 mg intrauterine device
C. Combined oral contraceptive pill
D. Transdermal norelgestromin/ethinyl estradiol patch
The levonorgestrel intrauterine device (IUD) is a highly effective, long-acting reversible
contraceptive method that contains progestin only, making it safe for individuals seeking
estrogen-free options.
6. A 35-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation is screened for gestational diabetes
mellitus using a 1-hour 50 g glucose challenge test. Which result indicates the need for a 3-
hour oral glucose tolerance test?
A. 110 mg/dL
B. 125 mg/dL
C. 138 mg/dL
D. 95 mg/dL
A blood glucose value of 130 to 140 mg/dL or greater (commonly set at 135-140 mg/dL) on a
1-hour 50g oral glucose challenge screening test requires diagnostic follow-up with a 3-hour
oral glucose tolerance test.
7. A 22-year-old patient presents with a profuse, frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge and
severe vulvar pruritus. Wet mount examination reveals motile, flagellated organisms. What
is the recommended treatment?
A. Oral fluconazole
B. Intravaginal clindamycin cream
,C. Oral metronidazole
D. Oral azithromycin
Trichomoniasis presents with frothy yellow-green discharge and motile protozoa on wet
mount. The recommended treatment is oral metronidazole or tinidazole for both the patient
and their sexual partner to prevent reinfection.
8. A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman with an intact uterus requests hormone therapy
for severe vasomotor symptoms. Which regimen is required?
A. Estrogen therapy alone
B. Estrogen plus progestin therapy
C. Progestin therapy alone
D. Testosterone therapy alone
Systemic estrogen therapy administered without a progestin in a woman with an intact
uterus causes unopposed endometrial stimulation, significantly increasing the risk of
endometrial hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma. Combined estrogen and progestin therapy is
required.
9. A 30-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. Uterine tone is soft and non-tender. What diagnostic evaluation should be
performed first?
A. Digital cervical examination
B. Transabdominal or transvaginal ultrasound
C. Amniotomy
D. Speculum examination with pap smear
Painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester is characteristic of placenta previa. Digital
pelvic examination is strictly contraindicated until placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound,
as manual examination can cause catastrophic hemorrhage.
10. A 26-year-old patient presents for evaluation of amenorrhea for 6 months. Pregnancy
test is negative. Serum prolactin is significantly elevated. Which diagnostic imaging is
indicated?
A. Pelvic ultrasound
B. Computed tomography of the pelvis
C. Magnetic resonance imaging of the pituitary gland
D. Hysterosalpingogram
Hyperprolactinemia in the absence of pregnancy or medication side effects warrants an MRI
of the sella turcica to evaluate for a prolactin-secreting pituitary microadenoma or
macroadenoma.
, 11. A 32-year-old female at 38 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 152/98
mmHg on two occasions 4 hours apart and 2+ proteinuria on dipstick. She denies headache
or visual changes. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Preeclampsia without severe features
C. Preeclampsia with severe features
D. Chronic hypertension
Preeclampsia without severe features is defined as new-onset hypertension (systolic >= 140
mmHg or diastolic >= 90 mmHg) occurring after 20 weeks gestation accompanied by
proteinuria (>= 300 mg per 24 hours or >= 1+ to 2+ dipstick), without severe end-organ signs.
12. A 23-year-old patient presents with symptoms of bacterial vaginosis. Which
microscopic finding on a saline wet mount confirms this diagnosis?
A. Pseudohyphae and budding yeast
B. Clue cells with obscure cell borders
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes with intracellular diplococci
D. Motile flagellated protozoa
Bacterial vaginosis is diagnosed using Amsel criteria, which include clue cells (vaginal
epithelial cells studded with adherent bacteria, obscuring border clarity) visible on wet mount
examination.
13. A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with a single episode of vaginal
bleeding. Which diagnostic test is the priority initial evaluation?
A. Cervical cytology
B. Transvaginal ultrasound or endometrial biopsy
C. Serum CA-125
D. Pelvic MRI
Postmenopausal bleeding must be considered endometrial cancer until proven otherwise.
Initial evaluation requires transvaginal ultrasonography to assess endometrial thickness
(threshold <= 4 mm) or an endometrial biopsy.
14. A 29-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks gestation is in active labor. Cervical exam reveals 6 cm
dilation, 80% effacement, -1 station. Over 2 hours, there is no cervical change despite
adequate contractions. What is the clinical interpretation?
A. Normal latent phase
B. Active phase arrest
C. Protracted active phase
D. Arrest of descent
AND ANSWERS (CORRECT ANSWERS) PLUS DETAILED
RATIONALES | COMPLETE STUDYGUIDE| GUARANTEED PASS |
DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF 2027-2028
1. A 24-year-old female presents for a routine wellness exam. Which screening intervention
is recommended for cervical cancer prevention according to current guidelines?
A. Annual Pap smear starting at age 18
B. Cervical cytology alone every 3 years starting at age 21
C. HPV co-testing alone every 5 years starting at age 21
D. Annual liquid-based cytology with reflex HPV testing
Cervical cancer screening guidelines recommend initiating cervical cytology alone every 3
years for women aged 21 to 29. HPV co-testing is not recommended for individuals under age
30 due to high rates of transient HPV infections that spontaneously resolve.
2. A 31-year-old patient reports severe dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, and dyspareunia.
Physical exam reveals painful nodularities on the uterosacral ligaments. What is the most
likely underlying diagnosis?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Endometriosis
C. Uterine leiomyomas
D. Ovarian cystadenoma
Endometriosis is characterized by the classic triad of dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and chronic
pelvic pain. Findings of tender nodularities along the uterosacral ligaments on bimanual
examination strongly support this diagnosis.
3. A nurse practitioner is evaluating a 28-year-old G1P0 at 10 weeks gestation for her first
prenatal visit. Which baseline laboratory test must be performed to assess for fetal risk of
hemolytic disease?
A. Maternal blood typing and Rh antibody screen
B. Hemoglobin A1c
C. Serum alpha-fetoprotein
D. Group B Streptococcus screen
Maternal ABO and Rh typing with an antibody screen determines the risk of Rh
isoimmunization and erythroblastosis fetalis. Identifying Rh-negative mothers early allows for
appropriate administration of Rho(D) immune globulin during pregnancy.
,4. A 48-year-old female reports irregular menstrual bleeding, hot flashes, and vaginal
dryness. Which serum laboratory finding is most characteristic of the perimenopausal
transition?
A. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone
B. Elevated follicle-stimulating hormone
C. Decreased luteinizing hormone
D. Elevated progesterone
During the perimenopausal transition, ovarian follicular depletion leads to decreased
estrogen production and loss of negative feedback to the pituitary gland, resulting in
significantly elevated levels of Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH).
5. A 19-year-old nulliparous female requests a highly effective, long-acting reversible
contraception (LARC) method that does not contain estrogen. Which option is most
suitable?
A. Ethinyl estradiol and etonogestrel vaginal ring
B. Levonorgestrel 52 mg intrauterine device
C. Combined oral contraceptive pill
D. Transdermal norelgestromin/ethinyl estradiol patch
The levonorgestrel intrauterine device (IUD) is a highly effective, long-acting reversible
contraceptive method that contains progestin only, making it safe for individuals seeking
estrogen-free options.
6. A 35-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation is screened for gestational diabetes
mellitus using a 1-hour 50 g glucose challenge test. Which result indicates the need for a 3-
hour oral glucose tolerance test?
A. 110 mg/dL
B. 125 mg/dL
C. 138 mg/dL
D. 95 mg/dL
A blood glucose value of 130 to 140 mg/dL or greater (commonly set at 135-140 mg/dL) on a
1-hour 50g oral glucose challenge screening test requires diagnostic follow-up with a 3-hour
oral glucose tolerance test.
7. A 22-year-old patient presents with a profuse, frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge and
severe vulvar pruritus. Wet mount examination reveals motile, flagellated organisms. What
is the recommended treatment?
A. Oral fluconazole
B. Intravaginal clindamycin cream
,C. Oral metronidazole
D. Oral azithromycin
Trichomoniasis presents with frothy yellow-green discharge and motile protozoa on wet
mount. The recommended treatment is oral metronidazole or tinidazole for both the patient
and their sexual partner to prevent reinfection.
8. A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman with an intact uterus requests hormone therapy
for severe vasomotor symptoms. Which regimen is required?
A. Estrogen therapy alone
B. Estrogen plus progestin therapy
C. Progestin therapy alone
D. Testosterone therapy alone
Systemic estrogen therapy administered without a progestin in a woman with an intact
uterus causes unopposed endometrial stimulation, significantly increasing the risk of
endometrial hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma. Combined estrogen and progestin therapy is
required.
9. A 30-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. Uterine tone is soft and non-tender. What diagnostic evaluation should be
performed first?
A. Digital cervical examination
B. Transabdominal or transvaginal ultrasound
C. Amniotomy
D. Speculum examination with pap smear
Painless bright red bleeding in the third trimester is characteristic of placenta previa. Digital
pelvic examination is strictly contraindicated until placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound,
as manual examination can cause catastrophic hemorrhage.
10. A 26-year-old patient presents for evaluation of amenorrhea for 6 months. Pregnancy
test is negative. Serum prolactin is significantly elevated. Which diagnostic imaging is
indicated?
A. Pelvic ultrasound
B. Computed tomography of the pelvis
C. Magnetic resonance imaging of the pituitary gland
D. Hysterosalpingogram
Hyperprolactinemia in the absence of pregnancy or medication side effects warrants an MRI
of the sella turcica to evaluate for a prolactin-secreting pituitary microadenoma or
macroadenoma.
, 11. A 32-year-old female at 38 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 152/98
mmHg on two occasions 4 hours apart and 2+ proteinuria on dipstick. She denies headache
or visual changes. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Preeclampsia without severe features
C. Preeclampsia with severe features
D. Chronic hypertension
Preeclampsia without severe features is defined as new-onset hypertension (systolic >= 140
mmHg or diastolic >= 90 mmHg) occurring after 20 weeks gestation accompanied by
proteinuria (>= 300 mg per 24 hours or >= 1+ to 2+ dipstick), without severe end-organ signs.
12. A 23-year-old patient presents with symptoms of bacterial vaginosis. Which
microscopic finding on a saline wet mount confirms this diagnosis?
A. Pseudohyphae and budding yeast
B. Clue cells with obscure cell borders
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes with intracellular diplococci
D. Motile flagellated protozoa
Bacterial vaginosis is diagnosed using Amsel criteria, which include clue cells (vaginal
epithelial cells studded with adherent bacteria, obscuring border clarity) visible on wet mount
examination.
13. A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with a single episode of vaginal
bleeding. Which diagnostic test is the priority initial evaluation?
A. Cervical cytology
B. Transvaginal ultrasound or endometrial biopsy
C. Serum CA-125
D. Pelvic MRI
Postmenopausal bleeding must be considered endometrial cancer until proven otherwise.
Initial evaluation requires transvaginal ultrasonography to assess endometrial thickness
(threshold <= 4 mm) or an endometrial biopsy.
14. A 29-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks gestation is in active labor. Cervical exam reveals 6 cm
dilation, 80% effacement, -1 station. Over 2 hours, there is no cervical change despite
adequate contractions. What is the clinical interpretation?
A. Normal latent phase
B. Active phase arrest
C. Protracted active phase
D. Arrest of descent
