NSG 530 EXAM 3 – 2026 WILKES ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY COMPLETE (110) CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NSG
Prepare for the NSG 530 Exam 3 – Wilkes Advanced Pathophysiology with this
comprehensive practice resource designed to strengthen your advanced nursing
knowledge and exam readiness. It features exam-style questions covering complex
disease processes, pathophysiological mechanisms, organ system disorders,
immune responses, genetic influences, clinical manifestations, and evidence-based
nursing considerations. Use it to reinforce essential concepts, assess your
understanding, and build confidence before test day. An excellent study aid for Wilkes
University nursing students preparing for the NSG 530 Advanced Pathophysiology
Exam 3.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
DOMAIN 1: RENAL PATHOPHYSIOLOGY (Questions 1–40)
Question 1: The geometric formula for the area of a triangle is:
A. (1/2)bh
B. πr²
C. 2πr
D. l × w
Correct answer: A. (1/2)bh
Rationale: The area of a triangle is calculated using (1/2) × base × height.
Question 2: A 28-year-old woman presents with fever, flank pain, and dysuria.
Urinalysis reveals pyuria and bacteriuria. CT scan shows inflammation
extending from the renal pelvis into the renal parenchyma. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Cystitis
B. Pyelonephritis
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C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Renal cell carcinoma
Correct answer: B. Pyelonephritis
Rationale: Pyelonephritis is inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney
parenchyma, typically presenting with fever, flank pain, and dysuria. CT
findings confirm the diagnosis . Cystitis causes frequency, urgency, and
dysuria without fever or flank pain.
Question 3: Urine formation occurs through three processes. What is the
correct order?
A. Secretion → Reabsorption → Filtration
B. Filtration → Reabsorption → Secretion
C. Reabsorption → Filtration → Secretion
D. Filtration → Secretion → Reabsorption
Correct answer: B. Filtration → Reabsorption → Secretion
Rationale: Urine formation occurs in three steps: filtration (blood filtered at
the glomerulus into Bowman's capsule), tubular reabsorption (substances
reabsorbed back into blood), and tubular secretion (chemicals excreted into
the filtrate) .
Question 4: Which condition is characterized by excretion of 3.5 g or more of
protein in the urine per day?
A. Nephritic syndrome
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Glomerulonephritis
Correct answer: B. Nephrotic syndrome
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is defined by massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day),
hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema. It occurs when glomerular
filtration of plasma proteins exceeds tubular reabsorption .
Question 5: A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus presents with
hematuria, proteinuria, and declining renal function. Renal biopsy shows
immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. What type of
glomerulonephritis is this?
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A. Primary glomerulonephritis
B. Secondary glomerulonephritis
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Nephrotic syndrome
Correct answer: B. Secondary glomerulonephritis
Rationale: Secondary glomerulonephritis occurs as a result of systemic
diseases such as lupus erythematosus, diabetes, or hypertension. Immune
complexes deposit in glomeruli, causing inflammation and damage .
Question 6: A 10-year-old child presents 2 weeks after a streptococcal throat
infection with hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral
edema. Urinalysis shows red blood cell casts. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Primary glomerulonephritis
C. Cystitis
D. Renal cell carcinoma
Correct answer: B. Primary glomerulonephritis
Rationale: Primary glomerulonephritis occurs independently of other
conditions, often following an acute infectious process (post-streptococcal).
Symptoms include hematuria with RBC casts (pathognomonic for glomerular
disease), proteinuria, oliguria, hypertension, and edema .
Question 7: A patient with nephrotic syndrome develops severe peripheral
edema. What is the underlying mechanism?
A. Excessive sodium intake
B. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia
C. Right-sided heart failure
D. Lymphatic obstruction
Correct answer: B. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure from
hypoalbuminemia
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, massive proteinuria causes
hypoalbuminemia. Albumin maintains plasma oncotic pressure; when lost,
fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial spaces, causing edema .
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Question 8: Urea is a byproduct of:
A. Muscle metabolism
B. Protein metabolism
C. Carbohydrate metabolism
D. Lipid metabolism
Correct answer: B. Protein metabolism
Rationale: Urea is a byproduct of protein metabolism, while creatinine is a
byproduct of muscle metabolism .
Question 9: A patient is diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. Which organism
is most commonly responsible?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Correct answer: C. Escherichia coli
Rationale: E. coli is the most common cause of pyelonephritis, as well as
cystitis. Other organisms include Proteus, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, fungi,
viruses, and parasites .
Question 10: What is the normal creatinine clearance range?
A. 30-60 mL/min
B. 60-90 mL/min
C. 90-130 mL/min
D. 130-180 mL/min
Correct answer: C. 90-130 mL/min
Rationale: Normal creatinine clearance is 90-130 mL/min, indicating the
amount of blood cleared by the kidneys in one minute of filtration .
Question 11: A patient with a urinary tract obstruction develops
hydronephrosis. What is the underlying mechanism?
A. Decreased GFR and increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule
B. Increased GFR and decreased hydrostatic pressure
C. Decreased tubular reabsorption
D. Increased tubular secretion