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NUR 242 EXAM 3 PRACTICE EXAM GALEN COLLEGE OF
NURSING — MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING 2026/2027
COMPLETE (100) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NURSING
Prepare for the NUR 242 Exam 3 – Med-Surg Nursing – Galen College with a focused
study resource designed to reinforce essential medical-surgical nursing concepts. It
supports review of gastrointestinal and respiratory disorders, oxygen therapy,
tracheostomy and chest-tube care, diabetes management, and priority nursing
interventions. Use the material to strengthen clinical reasoning, improve recall, and
identify areas that may need additional review before the exam. This resource is best
suited for Galen College of Nursing NUR 242 students preparing for Exam 3 in Medical-
Surgical Nursing.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which
assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?
• A) Increased urine output
• B) Decreased urine output
• C) Increased blood pressure
• D) Decreased heart rate
Answer: A) Increased urine output
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload in
heart failure. Increased urine output indicates a therapeutic response.
The patient should also show improvement in symptoms such as dyspnea
and edema.
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2. A patient with heart failure is on a low-sodium diet. Which food choice
by the patient indicates an understanding of the diet?
• A) Canned soup
• B) Fresh grilled chicken breast
• C) Salted nuts
• D) Processed cheese
Answer: B) Fresh grilled chicken breast
Rationale: A low-sodium diet is essential in heart failure management.
Fresh grilled chicken breast is a low-sodium choice. Canned soup, salted
nuts, and processed cheese are high in sodium and should be avoided.
3. A patient is admitted with acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which
medication should the nurse administer first?
• A) Morphine
• B) Aspirin
• C) Nitroglycerin
• D) Oxygen
Answer: B) Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin is administered immediately in acute MI to prevent
platelet aggregation and further clot formation. It should be given as soon
as possible. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine are also important but
aspirin is the priority initial treatment.
4. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse
effect should the nurse monitor for?
• A) Hyperkalemia
• B) Hypokalemia
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• C) Hypernatremia
• D) Hyponatremia
Answer: A) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by
reducing aldosterone secretion, which decreases potassium excretion.
Patients at highest risk include those with renal impairment, diabetes, or
those taking potassium supplements.
5. Which of the following is a classic symptom of intermittent
claudication?
• A) Chest pain with exertion
• B) Leg pain with walking that is relieved by rest
• C) Shortness of breath with activity
• D) Back pain with bending
Answer: B) Leg pain with walking that is relieved by rest
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is pain in the lower extremities that
occurs with exercise and is relieved by rest. It is caused by inadequate
blood flow due to peripheral arterial disease.
6. A patient is 2 hours post-cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery.
Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
• A) The patient reports mild back pain
• B) The groin site has a small amount of oozing
• C) The affected foot is pale and cool with absent pedal pulses
• D) The patient's blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg
Answer: C) The affected foot is pale and cool with absent pedal pulses
Rationale: Pale, cool, pulseless extremity after cardiac catheterization
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suggests arterial occlusion or thrombus formation at the access site. This
is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
7. A patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) has a wound on the foot
that is pale and painful. Which intervention is most appropriate?
• A) Elevate the foot to reduce edema
• B) Apply heat to the foot
• C) Protect the foot from trauma and keep it dry
• D) Massage the foot to promote circulation
Answer: C) Protect the foot from trauma and keep it dry
Rationale: PAD patients have decreased blood flow and are at risk for foot
ulcers. Feet should be protected from trauma, kept warm (not hot), and
kept dry and clean. Elevation worsens arterial insufficiency by further
reducing blood flow.
8. A patient with chronic venous insufficiency has stasis dermatitis.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
• A) Apply heat to the affected area
• B) Keep the skin clean and dry
• C) Use a heating pad to improve circulation
• D) Apply topical antibiotics daily
Answer: B) Keep the skin clean and dry
Rationale: Keeping the skin clean and dry, along with applying emollients,
is essential to prevent skin breakdown in patients with stasis dermatitis.
Heat should be avoided as it can cause burns. Topical antibiotics are not
routinely needed.
NUR 242 EXAM 3 PRACTICE EXAM GALEN COLLEGE OF
NURSING — MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING 2026/2027
COMPLETE (100) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
NURSING
Prepare for the NUR 242 Exam 3 – Med-Surg Nursing – Galen College with a focused
study resource designed to reinforce essential medical-surgical nursing concepts. It
supports review of gastrointestinal and respiratory disorders, oxygen therapy,
tracheostomy and chest-tube care, diabetes management, and priority nursing
interventions. Use the material to strengthen clinical reasoning, improve recall, and
identify areas that may need additional review before the exam. This resource is best
suited for Galen College of Nursing NUR 242 students preparing for Exam 3 in Medical-
Surgical Nursing.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which
assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?
• A) Increased urine output
• B) Decreased urine output
• C) Increased blood pressure
• D) Decreased heart rate
Answer: A) Increased urine output
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload in
heart failure. Increased urine output indicates a therapeutic response.
The patient should also show improvement in symptoms such as dyspnea
and edema.
, Page 2 of 44
2. A patient with heart failure is on a low-sodium diet. Which food choice
by the patient indicates an understanding of the diet?
• A) Canned soup
• B) Fresh grilled chicken breast
• C) Salted nuts
• D) Processed cheese
Answer: B) Fresh grilled chicken breast
Rationale: A low-sodium diet is essential in heart failure management.
Fresh grilled chicken breast is a low-sodium choice. Canned soup, salted
nuts, and processed cheese are high in sodium and should be avoided.
3. A patient is admitted with acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which
medication should the nurse administer first?
• A) Morphine
• B) Aspirin
• C) Nitroglycerin
• D) Oxygen
Answer: B) Aspirin
Rationale: Aspirin is administered immediately in acute MI to prevent
platelet aggregation and further clot formation. It should be given as soon
as possible. Oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine are also important but
aspirin is the priority initial treatment.
4. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse
effect should the nurse monitor for?
• A) Hyperkalemia
• B) Hypokalemia
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• C) Hypernatremia
• D) Hyponatremia
Answer: A) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by
reducing aldosterone secretion, which decreases potassium excretion.
Patients at highest risk include those with renal impairment, diabetes, or
those taking potassium supplements.
5. Which of the following is a classic symptom of intermittent
claudication?
• A) Chest pain with exertion
• B) Leg pain with walking that is relieved by rest
• C) Shortness of breath with activity
• D) Back pain with bending
Answer: B) Leg pain with walking that is relieved by rest
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is pain in the lower extremities that
occurs with exercise and is relieved by rest. It is caused by inadequate
blood flow due to peripheral arterial disease.
6. A patient is 2 hours post-cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery.
Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
• A) The patient reports mild back pain
• B) The groin site has a small amount of oozing
• C) The affected foot is pale and cool with absent pedal pulses
• D) The patient's blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg
Answer: C) The affected foot is pale and cool with absent pedal pulses
Rationale: Pale, cool, pulseless extremity after cardiac catheterization
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suggests arterial occlusion or thrombus formation at the access site. This
is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
7. A patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) has a wound on the foot
that is pale and painful. Which intervention is most appropriate?
• A) Elevate the foot to reduce edema
• B) Apply heat to the foot
• C) Protect the foot from trauma and keep it dry
• D) Massage the foot to promote circulation
Answer: C) Protect the foot from trauma and keep it dry
Rationale: PAD patients have decreased blood flow and are at risk for foot
ulcers. Feet should be protected from trauma, kept warm (not hot), and
kept dry and clean. Elevation worsens arterial insufficiency by further
reducing blood flow.
8. A patient with chronic venous insufficiency has stasis dermatitis.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
• A) Apply heat to the affected area
• B) Keep the skin clean and dry
• C) Use a heating pad to improve circulation
• D) Apply topical antibiotics daily
Answer: B) Keep the skin clean and dry
Rationale: Keeping the skin clean and dry, along with applying emollients,
is essential to prevent skin breakdown in patients with stasis dermatitis.
Heat should be avoided as it can cause burns. Topical antibiotics are not
routinely needed.
