WGU D116 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
EXAM WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS|
CURRENTLY TESTING VERSION | ALREADY
GRADED A+|NEWEST|EXPERT VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
A patient presents to an emergency room complaining of palpitations and irregular
heartbeat. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) places the patient on a
cardiac monitor and observes atrial fibrillation. The APRN orders dofetilide.
How should the APRN recommend this medication be taken?
YES With food or an empty stomach
A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that started after having
sexual activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg about eight hours ago. He has nitro-glycerine
0.3 mg on hand.
How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond?
Do not take the nitroglycerin and call 911
Taking the medications together can cause a serious drop in blood pressure leading
to cardiovascular collapse.
A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental health clinic is discussing
the possibility of beginning lithium with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN).
The patient expresses understanding and wishes to proceed with treatment. The APRN
explains to the patient that this medication requires specific lab monitoring and wants
to draw baseline labs. The patient asks why the test is needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient?
1|Page
,A baseline blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (CREA) level needs to be drawn to
assess kidney function prior to treatment.
This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a baseline should be drawn for
future comparison.
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the medications that will be
commonly experienced with a new nurse to determine whether the drugs are safe for
the patients. The new nurse is given a scenario where a patient is being prescribed
sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a prototype drug for erectile dysfunction.
Which patient may take this drug safely?
YES A 54-year-male with a medical history of hypertension, mild eczema, and previous
history of a urolithiasis where all is well controlled and there are no current
complications
A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a history of anxiety. The
advanced practice registered nurse reviews the mechanism of action by which many
neuropharmacological agents act and decides to prescribe citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
YES Influences receptor activity on target cells
Correct! This medication influences the activity in the receptors, and it targets
cells.
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On admission, the patient
exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty walking, trouble swallowing, confusion, and
memory loss. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
NO Modulates the effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase
2|Page
,Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine by
acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients with Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the neurotransmitters
acetylcholine and y-aminobutyric acid in the basal ganglia and extrapyramidal
system.
A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic for an emergency visit
with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) following a seizure. Upon
interviewing the patient and the parent, the APRN determines that the seizure is
classified by marked impairment of consciousness and is followed by a period of
central nervous system (CNS) depression.
Which type of seizure is this patient experiencing?
Atonic
NO Myoclonic
YES Tonic-clonic
Absence
Incorrect. Myoclonic seizures consist of a sudden muscle contraction that lasts for
just one second.
Correct! A tonic-clonic seizure is a type of seizure that is also called a convulsion.
This type of seizure can include muscle stiffness, loss of consciousness, and body
jerking.
A patient has been taking oral oxycodone every six hours for back pain during the past
three years. The patient suddenly decides to stop taking the pain medication and is
trying an alternative therapy without a clinician's approval.
Which risk is of clinical concern?
YES Physical dependence
Correct! The patient suddenly stopping the medication will cause physical
symptoms that can range from nausea to seizures.
3|Page
, An advanced practice registered nurse has diagnosed a 44-year-old male with
depression. A plan is developed to start treatment with medication. The patient has a
history of sexual dysfunction and is concerned about taking medication that may
worsen this condition.
Which antidepressant has the benefit of enhancing libido?
YES Bupropion
Correct! Bupropion does not cause sexual dysfunction. This will help the patient
with a history of sexual dysfunction. This will enhance the patient's libido, which
will help with both depression and sexual dysfunction.
A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats
per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78
mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta-agonist medication.
Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse should
monitor for which side effect?
YES Tachycardia
Correct! Beta-agonists are used for asthma because of their beta2 effects on
bronchial smooth muscle, causing dilation. Beta1 effects cause tachycardia and
hypertension. Beta receptors do not exert effects on the bladder.
A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine, including delirium and
hallucinations. Which medication should the provider administer?
YES Physostigmine
Correct! Physostigmine is the drug of choice for treating poisoning from atropine
and other drugs that cause muscarinic blockade. Donepezil is used to treat
Alzheimer disease. Edrophonium is used to distinguish between a myasthenic
crisis and a cholinesterase inhibitor overdose. Neostigmine does not cross the
blood-brain barrier and would not effectively treat this patient's central nervous
system (CNS) symptoms.
4|Page
EXAM WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS|
CURRENTLY TESTING VERSION | ALREADY
GRADED A+|NEWEST|EXPERT VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS
A patient presents to an emergency room complaining of palpitations and irregular
heartbeat. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) places the patient on a
cardiac monitor and observes atrial fibrillation. The APRN orders dofetilide.
How should the APRN recommend this medication be taken?
YES With food or an empty stomach
A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that started after having
sexual activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg about eight hours ago. He has nitro-glycerine
0.3 mg on hand.
How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond?
Do not take the nitroglycerin and call 911
Taking the medications together can cause a serious drop in blood pressure leading
to cardiovascular collapse.
A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental health clinic is discussing
the possibility of beginning lithium with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN).
The patient expresses understanding and wishes to proceed with treatment. The APRN
explains to the patient that this medication requires specific lab monitoring and wants
to draw baseline labs. The patient asks why the test is needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient?
1|Page
,A baseline blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (CREA) level needs to be drawn to
assess kidney function prior to treatment.
This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a baseline should be drawn for
future comparison.
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the medications that will be
commonly experienced with a new nurse to determine whether the drugs are safe for
the patients. The new nurse is given a scenario where a patient is being prescribed
sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a prototype drug for erectile dysfunction.
Which patient may take this drug safely?
YES A 54-year-male with a medical history of hypertension, mild eczema, and previous
history of a urolithiasis where all is well controlled and there are no current
complications
A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a history of anxiety. The
advanced practice registered nurse reviews the mechanism of action by which many
neuropharmacological agents act and decides to prescribe citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
YES Influences receptor activity on target cells
Correct! This medication influences the activity in the receptors, and it targets
cells.
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On admission, the patient
exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty walking, trouble swallowing, confusion, and
memory loss. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
NO Modulates the effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase
2|Page
,Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine by
acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients with Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the neurotransmitters
acetylcholine and y-aminobutyric acid in the basal ganglia and extrapyramidal
system.
A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic for an emergency visit
with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) following a seizure. Upon
interviewing the patient and the parent, the APRN determines that the seizure is
classified by marked impairment of consciousness and is followed by a period of
central nervous system (CNS) depression.
Which type of seizure is this patient experiencing?
Atonic
NO Myoclonic
YES Tonic-clonic
Absence
Incorrect. Myoclonic seizures consist of a sudden muscle contraction that lasts for
just one second.
Correct! A tonic-clonic seizure is a type of seizure that is also called a convulsion.
This type of seizure can include muscle stiffness, loss of consciousness, and body
jerking.
A patient has been taking oral oxycodone every six hours for back pain during the past
three years. The patient suddenly decides to stop taking the pain medication and is
trying an alternative therapy without a clinician's approval.
Which risk is of clinical concern?
YES Physical dependence
Correct! The patient suddenly stopping the medication will cause physical
symptoms that can range from nausea to seizures.
3|Page
, An advanced practice registered nurse has diagnosed a 44-year-old male with
depression. A plan is developed to start treatment with medication. The patient has a
history of sexual dysfunction and is concerned about taking medication that may
worsen this condition.
Which antidepressant has the benefit of enhancing libido?
YES Bupropion
Correct! Bupropion does not cause sexual dysfunction. This will help the patient
with a history of sexual dysfunction. This will enhance the patient's libido, which
will help with both depression and sexual dysfunction.
A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats
per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78
mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta-agonist medication.
Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse should
monitor for which side effect?
YES Tachycardia
Correct! Beta-agonists are used for asthma because of their beta2 effects on
bronchial smooth muscle, causing dilation. Beta1 effects cause tachycardia and
hypertension. Beta receptors do not exert effects on the bladder.
A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine, including delirium and
hallucinations. Which medication should the provider administer?
YES Physostigmine
Correct! Physostigmine is the drug of choice for treating poisoning from atropine
and other drugs that cause muscarinic blockade. Donepezil is used to treat
Alzheimer disease. Edrophonium is used to distinguish between a myasthenic
crisis and a cholinesterase inhibitor overdose. Neostigmine does not cross the
blood-brain barrier and would not effectively treat this patient's central nervous
system (CNS) symptoms.
4|Page
