ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2K20 — Quick-Review Exam (100 Q) NCLEX-RN 2026/2027 Standards
ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR 2K20
ALL THE INFORMATION YOU NEED FOR THE NEAR EXAM QUICK READ TO GUARANTEE A TOP
SCORE IN 15 SHORT PAGES
Aligned with the ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Blueprint and the NCLEX-RN Test Plan (2026/2027 Updated Standards).
Volume: 100 questions (4-option MCQ, single best answer) | Cognitive mix: 20% recall · 50% application · 30% analysis | Style: ~80%
scenario-based, ~20% direct knowledge
Special inclusions: 10 priority-setting · 10 delegation · 10 pharmacology questions | Sections: 8 NCLEX content areas | Format: Question
stem + A–D options + Correct Answer + 2–3 sentence ATI/NCSBN rationale.
Section 1: Management of Care
Q1.
A 17-year-old client is admitted for an emergency appendectomy. The client's parents are unavailable, and the client is unable to
provide informed consent. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Proceed with surgery under the doctrine of implied consent *[CORRECT]*
B. Contact the hospital's risk management department
C. Notify the provider to obtain a court order for treatment
D. Wait for parental consent before allowing the surgery to proceed
Correct Answer: A
In a life-threatening emergency when a minor's legal guardian is unavailable, the provider may proceed under the doctrine of implied consent.
Delaying emergency surgery (D) risks rupture and peritonitis. Risk management (B) is informational but does not authorize treatment. A court
order (C) is unnecessary in true emergencies per emergency medical treatment law (EMTALA / state emergency exception).
Q2.
A client with a terminal illness has a valid Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) order documented in the medical record. The client goes into
cardiac arrest, and a newly hired nurse begins chest compressions. What is the charge nurse's priority action?
A. Allow the compressions to continue since the client arrested
B. Stop the new nurse and remind staff that a DNR is in place *[CORRECT]*
C. Call the provider to confirm the DNR order is still valid
D. Document the incident in the new nurse's personnel file
Correct Answer: B
A DNR order is a physician-ordered medical directive that must be honored immediately. The charge nurse's first priority is to stop the
resuscitation attempt to respect the client's autonomy and advance directive (Patient Self-Determination Act). Continuing compressions (A)
violates the DNR. Confirming with the provider (C) is appropriate but the resuscitation must stop first. Documentation (D) is follow-up, not the
priority intervention.
Q3.
Which of the following tasks is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Reinforcing teaching about a low-sodium diet for a client with heart failure
B. Measuring intake and output for a client receiving IV diuretics *[CORRECT]*
C. Assessing a stage 2 pressure ulcer on a client who is immobile
D. Administering oral acetaminophen to a client with a mild headache
Correct Answer: B
According to the Five Rights of Delegation (NCSBN), UAP may perform routine, non-invasive tasks that do not require clinical judgment.
Measuring I&O is a stable, predictable task within UAP scope. Teaching (A) is the RN's responsibility. Wound assessment (C) requires nursing
judgment. Medication administration (D) requires a licensed nurse and is outside UAP scope of practice.
Q4.
The RN is caring for four clients. Which client should the RN assign to the LPN/LVN?
A. A client who was admitted 2 hours ago with acute chest pain and needs continuous telemetry monitoring
B. A client receiving the first dose of a new IV antibiotic with a history of anaphylaxis
C. A client 3 days postoperative from a hip replacement whose condition is stable and needs routine wound care
*[CORRECT]*
D. A client with new-onset confusion and a critically high potassium level of 7.1 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
The LPN/LVN scope includes caring for stable clients with predictable outcomes, such as routine postoperative wound care. Acute chest pain (A),
first-dose IV antibiotic with anaphylaxis risk (B), and critical hyperkalemia with confusion (D) all require RN-level assessment and clinical
judgment. NCSBN delegation principles direct the RN to retain clients with unstable, complex, or rapidly changing conditions.
Q5.
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,ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2K20 — Quick-Review Exam (100 Q) NCLEX-RN 2026/2027 Standards
The RN receives shift report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who is 2 days postoperative requesting pain medication for incisional pain rated 6/10
B. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with an SpO2 of 88% on room air
C. A client who is 4 hours post-coronary angiogram with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
D. A client receiving IV heparin for a deep vein thrombosis with a stool that is black and tarry *[CORRECT]*
Correct Answer: D
Using the ABC and acute-vs-chronic priority frameworks, the client on heparin with black, tarry stool suggests GI bleeding and is at highest risk
for hemorrhagic shock and death. This client requires immediate assessment and provider notification. Pain (A) is important but not
life-threatening. COPD with SpO2 88% (B) is the client's baseline for chronic disease. The post-angiogram client (C) is stable per vitals. The
Maslow hierarchy and 'most unstable first' rule apply here.
Q6.
A client diagnosed with terminal cancer refuses a recommended blood transfusion, stating religious beliefs prohibit it. The provider
insists the transfusion is life-saving. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?
A. Administer the transfusion as ordered since it is life-saving
B. Notify the hospital ethics committee to override the refusal
C. Advocate for the client's right to refuse and document the refusal *[CORRECT]*
D. Ask the family to consent to the transfusion on the client's behalf
Correct Answer: C
A competent adult has the legal and ethical right to refuse any treatment, including life-saving interventions, based on autonomy and the Patient
Self-Determination Act. The nurse serves as the client's advocate. Administering against the client's wishes (A) constitutes battery. The ethics
committee (B) cannot override a competent client's refusal. Family consent (D) is not valid for a competent adult.
Q7.
Which task is appropriate to delegate to a UAP caring for a client with a closed chest tube drainage system?
A. Emptying the collection chamber and measuring the output
B. Reporting to the nurse that the client is complaining of chest pain *[CORRECT]*
C. Adjusting the suction regulator to maintain the prescribed water seal
D. Milking the chest tube to dislodge visible clots
Correct Answer: B
UAP may report observations but cannot perform tasks requiring nursing judgment. Reporting chest pain is within UAP scope as
observation/communication. Emptying chest drainage (A) requires sterile technique and nursing judgment. Suction regulation (C) and tube
milking (D) require RN-level assessment and intervention. NCSBN delegation rules: UAP tasks must be routine, non-invasive, and predictable.
Q8.
Four clients request pain medication at the same time. The nurse should administer analgesia first to the client:
A. Who is 1 day postoperative from a total knee replacement requesting PRN morphine
B. Who is 2 hours postoperative from an open appendectomy reporting sudden incisional pain rated 9/10 *[CORRECT]*
C. Who has chronic low back pain requesting routine scheduled tramadol
D. Who has terminal cancer requesting a stool softener and pain medication
Correct Answer: B
The acute-vs-chronic and sudden-onset priority frameworks direct the nurse to the client with new, sudden, severe pain first, as this may indicate
a complication such as hemorrhage or dehiscence. The appendectomy client's sudden 9/10 pain 2 hours postop is the priority. The knee
replacement client (A) has expected postoperative pain. Chronic back pain (C) and terminal cancer pain (D) are ongoing, predictable needs.
Acute and unexpected always takes priority.
Q9.
A nurse on a medical unit accesses the electronic medical record of a client who was admitted last week, but the nurse is not currently
assigned to that client. The nurse's reason is personal curiosity about the client. Which action by the charge nurse is most appropriate?
A. Counsel the nurse privately about HIPAA violations
B. Report the nurse to the privacy officer and document the breach *[CORRECT]*
C. Reassign the nurse to that client so the access becomes legitimate
D. No action is needed if no information was shared with others
Correct Answer: B
Accessing a client's record without a legitimate treatment purpose is a HIPAA violation and a reportable breach. The nurse manager must report
to the privacy officer for investigation. Private counseling (A) is insufficient as it does not meet HIPAA breach reporting requirements.
Reassigning the client (C) does not retroactively validate the access. No sharing with others (D) does not negate the breach.
Q10.
Which assignment by the charge nurse requires intervention?
A. An LPN assigned to administer oral digoxin to a client with stable heart failure
Page 2 For Educational Use — Nursing Exam Preparation ATI / NCLEX-RN Review
, ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2K20 — Quick-Review Exam (100 Q) NCLEX-RN 2026/2027 Standards
B. A UAP assigned to ambulate a client who is 2 days postoperative from appendectomy
C. An LPN assigned to perform the initial admission assessment on a new client *[CORRECT]*
D. A UAP assigned to take vital signs on four stable clients
Correct Answer: C
The initial comprehensive admission assessment must be performed by the RN, as it requires synthesis of clinical data and nursing judgment to
formulate the plan of care. LPN scope (per NCSBN) excludes initial assessments but allows focused, ongoing assessments. Administering oral
digoxin (A) is within LPN scope if the client is stable. Ambulating a stable postoperative client (B) and taking vital signs (D) are within UAP
scope.
Q11.
A client scheduled for a lumbar laminectomy tells the nurse, 'I don't think I really need this surgery. I'm worried I won't walk again.'
What is the nurse's best response?
A. 'Your surgeon wouldn't recommend it if it weren't necessary.'
B. 'Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery and recovery.' *[CORRECT]*
C. 'You should discuss this with your surgeon before signing the consent.'
D. 'Most clients do very well after this procedure, so don't worry.'
Correct Answer: B
Therapeutic communication uses open-ended questions and active listening to explore client concerns. The response invites the client to share
fears without judgment. Dismissing the concern (A, D) is non-therapeutic and blocks communication. Suggesting the surgeon discussion (C)
without first exploring the concern is premature closure. The nurse acts as advocate by exploring the client's understanding and ensuring
informed consent is genuine.
Q12.
A 16-year-old client presents to the maternity unit in active labor. Her parents are not present. Under the mature minor doctrine, which
intervention can the client legally consent to without parental notification?
A. Emergency cesarean section
B. Routine labor and delivery care *[CORRECT]*
C. Blood transfusion for hemorrhage
D. Epidural anesthesia placement
Correct Answer: B
In most states, minors seeking maternity care are considered 'emancipated' for the purpose of pregnancy-related treatment and may consent to
routine labor, delivery, and prenatal care. Emergency C-section (A) falls under implied consent. Blood transfusion (C) and invasive procedures
like epidural (D) may require parental consent or court order depending on state law. The nurse must know state-specific statutes and consult risk
management when uncertain.
Q13.
A client becomes physically aggressive and attempts to pull out a central line. The provider orders soft wrist restraints. Which nursing
action is required for safe, legal restraint use?
A. Apply restraints tightly to prevent the client from loosening them
B. Document that restraints are needed because the client is noncompliant
C. Assess circulation, sensation, and motion every 2 hours while restrained *[CORRECT]*
D. Remove restraints only when the provider writes a discontinuation order
Correct Answer: C
Restraint standards (CMS, Joint Commission) require neurovascular checks (circulation, sensation, motion) at least every 2 hours for soft
restraints and every 1 hour for violent restraints. Restraints should be snug, not tight (A) — two fingers should fit beneath. 'Noncompliant' (B) is
not a clinical indication. Restraints must be discontinued as soon as the client is no longer a danger; they require renewal orders every 24 hours,
not just provider discontinuation (D).
Q14.
The nurse is assigned to four clients. Which client should be assessed first?
A. A client with diabetes mellitus whose morning blood glucose is 250 mg/dL
B. A client with pneumonia whose respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min and SpO2 is 92% on 2L NC
C. A client 2 days post-MI with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg and heart rate of 90
D. A client with heart failure with new-onset confusion and a potassium of 5.9 mEq/L *[CORRECT]*
Correct Answer: D
The ABC and 'most unstable first' frameworks prioritize the client with new neurologic changes and hyperkalemia, who is at high risk for lethal
cardiac arrhythmias. Confusion with K+ of 5.9 indicates possible impending cardiac arrest. The pneumonia client (B) is
respiratory-compromised but stable on supplemental O2. Glucose 250 mg/dL (A) is elevated but not immediately life-threatening. Post-MI vitals
(C) are within acceptable range. Hyperkalemia with neurologic change = emergency.
Q15.
Page 3 For Educational Use — Nursing Exam Preparation ATI / NCLEX-RN Review
ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR 2K20
ALL THE INFORMATION YOU NEED FOR THE NEAR EXAM QUICK READ TO GUARANTEE A TOP
SCORE IN 15 SHORT PAGES
Aligned with the ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Blueprint and the NCLEX-RN Test Plan (2026/2027 Updated Standards).
Volume: 100 questions (4-option MCQ, single best answer) | Cognitive mix: 20% recall · 50% application · 30% analysis | Style: ~80%
scenario-based, ~20% direct knowledge
Special inclusions: 10 priority-setting · 10 delegation · 10 pharmacology questions | Sections: 8 NCLEX content areas | Format: Question
stem + A–D options + Correct Answer + 2–3 sentence ATI/NCSBN rationale.
Section 1: Management of Care
Q1.
A 17-year-old client is admitted for an emergency appendectomy. The client's parents are unavailable, and the client is unable to
provide informed consent. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Proceed with surgery under the doctrine of implied consent *[CORRECT]*
B. Contact the hospital's risk management department
C. Notify the provider to obtain a court order for treatment
D. Wait for parental consent before allowing the surgery to proceed
Correct Answer: A
In a life-threatening emergency when a minor's legal guardian is unavailable, the provider may proceed under the doctrine of implied consent.
Delaying emergency surgery (D) risks rupture and peritonitis. Risk management (B) is informational but does not authorize treatment. A court
order (C) is unnecessary in true emergencies per emergency medical treatment law (EMTALA / state emergency exception).
Q2.
A client with a terminal illness has a valid Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) order documented in the medical record. The client goes into
cardiac arrest, and a newly hired nurse begins chest compressions. What is the charge nurse's priority action?
A. Allow the compressions to continue since the client arrested
B. Stop the new nurse and remind staff that a DNR is in place *[CORRECT]*
C. Call the provider to confirm the DNR order is still valid
D. Document the incident in the new nurse's personnel file
Correct Answer: B
A DNR order is a physician-ordered medical directive that must be honored immediately. The charge nurse's first priority is to stop the
resuscitation attempt to respect the client's autonomy and advance directive (Patient Self-Determination Act). Continuing compressions (A)
violates the DNR. Confirming with the provider (C) is appropriate but the resuscitation must stop first. Documentation (D) is follow-up, not the
priority intervention.
Q3.
Which of the following tasks is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Reinforcing teaching about a low-sodium diet for a client with heart failure
B. Measuring intake and output for a client receiving IV diuretics *[CORRECT]*
C. Assessing a stage 2 pressure ulcer on a client who is immobile
D. Administering oral acetaminophen to a client with a mild headache
Correct Answer: B
According to the Five Rights of Delegation (NCSBN), UAP may perform routine, non-invasive tasks that do not require clinical judgment.
Measuring I&O is a stable, predictable task within UAP scope. Teaching (A) is the RN's responsibility. Wound assessment (C) requires nursing
judgment. Medication administration (D) requires a licensed nurse and is outside UAP scope of practice.
Q4.
The RN is caring for four clients. Which client should the RN assign to the LPN/LVN?
A. A client who was admitted 2 hours ago with acute chest pain and needs continuous telemetry monitoring
B. A client receiving the first dose of a new IV antibiotic with a history of anaphylaxis
C. A client 3 days postoperative from a hip replacement whose condition is stable and needs routine wound care
*[CORRECT]*
D. A client with new-onset confusion and a critically high potassium level of 7.1 mEq/L
Correct Answer: C
The LPN/LVN scope includes caring for stable clients with predictable outcomes, such as routine postoperative wound care. Acute chest pain (A),
first-dose IV antibiotic with anaphylaxis risk (B), and critical hyperkalemia with confusion (D) all require RN-level assessment and clinical
judgment. NCSBN delegation principles direct the RN to retain clients with unstable, complex, or rapidly changing conditions.
Q5.
Page 1 For Educational Use — Nursing Exam Preparation ATI / NCLEX-RN Review
,ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2K20 — Quick-Review Exam (100 Q) NCLEX-RN 2026/2027 Standards
The RN receives shift report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who is 2 days postoperative requesting pain medication for incisional pain rated 6/10
B. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with an SpO2 of 88% on room air
C. A client who is 4 hours post-coronary angiogram with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
D. A client receiving IV heparin for a deep vein thrombosis with a stool that is black and tarry *[CORRECT]*
Correct Answer: D
Using the ABC and acute-vs-chronic priority frameworks, the client on heparin with black, tarry stool suggests GI bleeding and is at highest risk
for hemorrhagic shock and death. This client requires immediate assessment and provider notification. Pain (A) is important but not
life-threatening. COPD with SpO2 88% (B) is the client's baseline for chronic disease. The post-angiogram client (C) is stable per vitals. The
Maslow hierarchy and 'most unstable first' rule apply here.
Q6.
A client diagnosed with terminal cancer refuses a recommended blood transfusion, stating religious beliefs prohibit it. The provider
insists the transfusion is life-saving. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?
A. Administer the transfusion as ordered since it is life-saving
B. Notify the hospital ethics committee to override the refusal
C. Advocate for the client's right to refuse and document the refusal *[CORRECT]*
D. Ask the family to consent to the transfusion on the client's behalf
Correct Answer: C
A competent adult has the legal and ethical right to refuse any treatment, including life-saving interventions, based on autonomy and the Patient
Self-Determination Act. The nurse serves as the client's advocate. Administering against the client's wishes (A) constitutes battery. The ethics
committee (B) cannot override a competent client's refusal. Family consent (D) is not valid for a competent adult.
Q7.
Which task is appropriate to delegate to a UAP caring for a client with a closed chest tube drainage system?
A. Emptying the collection chamber and measuring the output
B. Reporting to the nurse that the client is complaining of chest pain *[CORRECT]*
C. Adjusting the suction regulator to maintain the prescribed water seal
D. Milking the chest tube to dislodge visible clots
Correct Answer: B
UAP may report observations but cannot perform tasks requiring nursing judgment. Reporting chest pain is within UAP scope as
observation/communication. Emptying chest drainage (A) requires sterile technique and nursing judgment. Suction regulation (C) and tube
milking (D) require RN-level assessment and intervention. NCSBN delegation rules: UAP tasks must be routine, non-invasive, and predictable.
Q8.
Four clients request pain medication at the same time. The nurse should administer analgesia first to the client:
A. Who is 1 day postoperative from a total knee replacement requesting PRN morphine
B. Who is 2 hours postoperative from an open appendectomy reporting sudden incisional pain rated 9/10 *[CORRECT]*
C. Who has chronic low back pain requesting routine scheduled tramadol
D. Who has terminal cancer requesting a stool softener and pain medication
Correct Answer: B
The acute-vs-chronic and sudden-onset priority frameworks direct the nurse to the client with new, sudden, severe pain first, as this may indicate
a complication such as hemorrhage or dehiscence. The appendectomy client's sudden 9/10 pain 2 hours postop is the priority. The knee
replacement client (A) has expected postoperative pain. Chronic back pain (C) and terminal cancer pain (D) are ongoing, predictable needs.
Acute and unexpected always takes priority.
Q9.
A nurse on a medical unit accesses the electronic medical record of a client who was admitted last week, but the nurse is not currently
assigned to that client. The nurse's reason is personal curiosity about the client. Which action by the charge nurse is most appropriate?
A. Counsel the nurse privately about HIPAA violations
B. Report the nurse to the privacy officer and document the breach *[CORRECT]*
C. Reassign the nurse to that client so the access becomes legitimate
D. No action is needed if no information was shared with others
Correct Answer: B
Accessing a client's record without a legitimate treatment purpose is a HIPAA violation and a reportable breach. The nurse manager must report
to the privacy officer for investigation. Private counseling (A) is insufficient as it does not meet HIPAA breach reporting requirements.
Reassigning the client (C) does not retroactively validate the access. No sharing with others (D) does not negate the breach.
Q10.
Which assignment by the charge nurse requires intervention?
A. An LPN assigned to administer oral digoxin to a client with stable heart failure
Page 2 For Educational Use — Nursing Exam Preparation ATI / NCLEX-RN Review
, ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2K20 — Quick-Review Exam (100 Q) NCLEX-RN 2026/2027 Standards
B. A UAP assigned to ambulate a client who is 2 days postoperative from appendectomy
C. An LPN assigned to perform the initial admission assessment on a new client *[CORRECT]*
D. A UAP assigned to take vital signs on four stable clients
Correct Answer: C
The initial comprehensive admission assessment must be performed by the RN, as it requires synthesis of clinical data and nursing judgment to
formulate the plan of care. LPN scope (per NCSBN) excludes initial assessments but allows focused, ongoing assessments. Administering oral
digoxin (A) is within LPN scope if the client is stable. Ambulating a stable postoperative client (B) and taking vital signs (D) are within UAP
scope.
Q11.
A client scheduled for a lumbar laminectomy tells the nurse, 'I don't think I really need this surgery. I'm worried I won't walk again.'
What is the nurse's best response?
A. 'Your surgeon wouldn't recommend it if it weren't necessary.'
B. 'Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery and recovery.' *[CORRECT]*
C. 'You should discuss this with your surgeon before signing the consent.'
D. 'Most clients do very well after this procedure, so don't worry.'
Correct Answer: B
Therapeutic communication uses open-ended questions and active listening to explore client concerns. The response invites the client to share
fears without judgment. Dismissing the concern (A, D) is non-therapeutic and blocks communication. Suggesting the surgeon discussion (C)
without first exploring the concern is premature closure. The nurse acts as advocate by exploring the client's understanding and ensuring
informed consent is genuine.
Q12.
A 16-year-old client presents to the maternity unit in active labor. Her parents are not present. Under the mature minor doctrine, which
intervention can the client legally consent to without parental notification?
A. Emergency cesarean section
B. Routine labor and delivery care *[CORRECT]*
C. Blood transfusion for hemorrhage
D. Epidural anesthesia placement
Correct Answer: B
In most states, minors seeking maternity care are considered 'emancipated' for the purpose of pregnancy-related treatment and may consent to
routine labor, delivery, and prenatal care. Emergency C-section (A) falls under implied consent. Blood transfusion (C) and invasive procedures
like epidural (D) may require parental consent or court order depending on state law. The nurse must know state-specific statutes and consult risk
management when uncertain.
Q13.
A client becomes physically aggressive and attempts to pull out a central line. The provider orders soft wrist restraints. Which nursing
action is required for safe, legal restraint use?
A. Apply restraints tightly to prevent the client from loosening them
B. Document that restraints are needed because the client is noncompliant
C. Assess circulation, sensation, and motion every 2 hours while restrained *[CORRECT]*
D. Remove restraints only when the provider writes a discontinuation order
Correct Answer: C
Restraint standards (CMS, Joint Commission) require neurovascular checks (circulation, sensation, motion) at least every 2 hours for soft
restraints and every 1 hour for violent restraints. Restraints should be snug, not tight (A) — two fingers should fit beneath. 'Noncompliant' (B) is
not a clinical indication. Restraints must be discontinued as soon as the client is no longer a danger; they require renewal orders every 24 hours,
not just provider discontinuation (D).
Q14.
The nurse is assigned to four clients. Which client should be assessed first?
A. A client with diabetes mellitus whose morning blood glucose is 250 mg/dL
B. A client with pneumonia whose respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min and SpO2 is 92% on 2L NC
C. A client 2 days post-MI with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg and heart rate of 90
D. A client with heart failure with new-onset confusion and a potassium of 5.9 mEq/L *[CORRECT]*
Correct Answer: D
The ABC and 'most unstable first' frameworks prioritize the client with new neurologic changes and hyperkalemia, who is at high risk for lethal
cardiac arrhythmias. Confusion with K+ of 5.9 indicates possible impending cardiac arrest. The pneumonia client (B) is
respiratory-compromised but stable on supplemental O2. Glucose 250 mg/dL (A) is elevated but not immediately life-threatening. Post-MI vitals
(C) are within acceptable range. Hyperkalemia with neurologic change = emergency.
Q15.
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