NSG 300 EXAM 1: NURSE
PRACTITIONERS IN PRIMARY CARE.
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. The conceptual shift toward the first Nurse Practitioner program in 1965 was primarily
driven by which factor?
A. A surplus of family physicians in urban areas
B. A shortage of primary care physicians and the expansion of health insurance coverage
C. A nursing shortage in hospital settings
D. Federal mandates requiring nurses to obtain graduate degrees
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The first NP program was developed by Loretta Ford and Henry
Silver in 1965 at the University of Colorado to address the physician shortage and improve
access to care following the implementation of Medicare and Medicaid.
2. Which regulatory body is responsible for determining the legal scope of practice for Nurse
Practitioners within a specific state?
A. The American Nurses Association (ANA)
,B. The State Board of Nursing (BON)
C. The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
D. The American Association of Nurse Practitioners (AANP)
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The State Board of Nursing is the regulatory body that defines
the Nurse Practice Act and the specific scope of practice for NPs in that state.
3. A Nurse Practitioner provides treatment to a patient despite the patient’s refusal, claiming
it is for the patient’s ‘own good.’ This is an example of:
A. Autonomy
B. Veracity
C. Paternalism
D. Fidelity
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Paternalism occurs when a healthcare provider makes decisions
for a patient without their consent, overriding their autonomy under the guise of acting in
the patient’s best interest.
4. Under Medicare ‘incident-to’ billing rules, what is the required level of physician
supervision?
A. The physician must be in the same office suite and immediately available
, B. The physician must be available via telephone only
C. The physician must be in the same room as the NP
D. No physician supervision is required for incident-to billing
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Incident-to billing allows for 100% reimbursement but requires
the physician to be in the office suite and immediately available to provide assistance.
5. Which type of professional liability insurance covers a claim only if the policy is active both
when the incident occurred and when the claim is filed?
A. Occurrence policy
B. Tail coverage policy
C. Claims-made policy
D. Umbrella policy
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: A claims-made policy only covers claims made while the policy
is in effect. If a claim is filed after the policy ends, it is not covered unless ‘tail coverage’ is
purchased.
6. A Nurse Practitioner is reviewing a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials (RCTs).
According to the hierarchy of evidence, this represents which level?
A. Level IV
PRACTITIONERS IN PRIMARY CARE.
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. The conceptual shift toward the first Nurse Practitioner program in 1965 was primarily
driven by which factor?
A. A surplus of family physicians in urban areas
B. A shortage of primary care physicians and the expansion of health insurance coverage
C. A nursing shortage in hospital settings
D. Federal mandates requiring nurses to obtain graduate degrees
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The first NP program was developed by Loretta Ford and Henry
Silver in 1965 at the University of Colorado to address the physician shortage and improve
access to care following the implementation of Medicare and Medicaid.
2. Which regulatory body is responsible for determining the legal scope of practice for Nurse
Practitioners within a specific state?
A. The American Nurses Association (ANA)
,B. The State Board of Nursing (BON)
C. The Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
D. The American Association of Nurse Practitioners (AANP)
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The State Board of Nursing is the regulatory body that defines
the Nurse Practice Act and the specific scope of practice for NPs in that state.
3. A Nurse Practitioner provides treatment to a patient despite the patient’s refusal, claiming
it is for the patient’s ‘own good.’ This is an example of:
A. Autonomy
B. Veracity
C. Paternalism
D. Fidelity
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Paternalism occurs when a healthcare provider makes decisions
for a patient without their consent, overriding their autonomy under the guise of acting in
the patient’s best interest.
4. Under Medicare ‘incident-to’ billing rules, what is the required level of physician
supervision?
A. The physician must be in the same office suite and immediately available
, B. The physician must be available via telephone only
C. The physician must be in the same room as the NP
D. No physician supervision is required for incident-to billing
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Incident-to billing allows for 100% reimbursement but requires
the physician to be in the office suite and immediately available to provide assistance.
5. Which type of professional liability insurance covers a claim only if the policy is active both
when the incident occurred and when the claim is filed?
A. Occurrence policy
B. Tail coverage policy
C. Claims-made policy
D. Umbrella policy
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: A claims-made policy only covers claims made while the policy
is in effect. If a claim is filed after the policy ends, it is not covered unless ‘tail coverage’ is
purchased.
6. A Nurse Practitioner is reviewing a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials (RCTs).
According to the hierarchy of evidence, this represents which level?
A. Level IV
