WGU D446
Adult Health II
Objective Assessment
(2 Full Exams Set)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢160+ OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢250+ OA Review Questions & Answers
➢OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any
study resources, feel free to Message me."
,Table of Contents
D446 OA EXAM SET 1 ....................................................................... 2
D446 OA EXAM SET 2 ..................................................................... 68
D446 OA Review 250+ Questions & Answer Review ........... 143
D446 OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization .................... 181
D446 OA EXAM SET 1
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI). Which data warrants the
most immediate intervention by the nurse?
Table
Option Response
a. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L
b. Dry skin with inelastic turgor
c. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
d. Polyuria and excessive thirst
Correct Answer:
a. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by deficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
or renal unresponsiveness to ADH, resulting in massive diuresis and hypernatremia. A
serum sodium of 185 mEq/L represents severe hypernatremia (normal: 135-145
,mEq/L) and indicates profound dehydration with risk of neurological complications,
including seizures, cerebral edema upon correction, and death. This is a life-threatening
electrolyte imbalance requiring immediate intervention. While dry skin (b) and
tachycardia (c) indicate dehydration, and polyuria/thirst (d) are expected findings in DI,
none are as immediately life-threatening as severe hypernatremia.
Question 2
The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic
ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this
medical diagnosis?
Table
Option Response
a. Frequent use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion
b. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods
c. Upper mid-abdominal pain described as gnawing and burning
d. Marked loss of weight and appetite over the last 3 or 4 months
Correct Answer:
c. Upper mid-abdominal pain described as gnawing and burning
Rationale: The classic symptom of PUD is epigastric or upper mid-abdominal pain
described as gnawing, burning, or aching, often occurring 1-3 hours after meals or
during the night. This pain pattern is pathognomonic for ulcer disease. While antacid
use (a) may indicate dyspepsia, it is nonspecific. Severe cramps and diarrhea after
spicy foods (b) suggests food intolerance or irritable bowel syndrome. Marked weight
loss and anorexia over months (d) is more indicative of gastric cancer than
uncomplicated PUD.
Question 3
,The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and
observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed
appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the
nurse include in this client's plan of care?
Table
Option Response
a. Assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure
b. Prepare to administer intravenous levothyroxine
c. Review the client's serum electrolyte values
d. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops
Correct Answer:
d. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops
Rationale: Protuberant eyeballs describe exophthalmos, a hallmark of Graves'
ophthalmopathy associated with hyperthyroidism. The protrusion prevents complete
eyelid closure (lagophthalmos), leading to corneal drying, ulceration, and potential
vision loss. Artificial tears and lubricating ointments are essential to maintain corneal
moisture. Levothyroxine (b) is contraindicated—it is used for hypothyroidism, not
hyperthyroidism. Increased ICP (a) and electrolytes (c) are unrelated to this ocular
manifestation.
Question 4
To reduce the risk for pulmonary complications for a client with amyotrophic
lateral sclerosis (ALS), which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select
all that apply)
Table
, D446 OA EXAM SET 2
Question 1
A client is hospitalized after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). To reduce
cardiac workload, which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan
of care?
Table
Options
A. Provide a bedside commode for toileting
B. Encourage ambulation three times daily
C. Have the client perform range-of-motion exercises in bed
D. Allow the client to use the bathroom independently
Correct Answer:
A. Provide a bedside commode for toileting
Rationale: Post-MI, cardiac workload must be minimized. Using a bedside commode
reduces energy expenditure and cardiac demand compared to walking to the bathroom.
The Valsalva maneuver during straining also increases intrathoracic pressure, reducing
venous return and cardiac output. A bedside commode minimizes these risks while
maintaining dignity. Independent bathroom use and ambulation increase cardiac
workload and are inappropriate during acute recovery.
,Question 2
A client is admitted to the hospital for shortness of breath and chest pain after an
episode of syncope. Which laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to
report to the healthcare provider?
Table
Options
A. Troponin I
B. Complete blood count (CBC)
C. Serum potassium
D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct Answer:
A. Troponin I
Rationale: Troponin I is a cardiac-specific biomarker that indicates myocardial cell
damage. In a client presenting with syncope, chest pain, and shortness of breath,
elevated troponin suggests acute myocardial infarction or other cardiac event requiring
immediate intervention. While CBC, potassium, and BUN provide valuable information,
troponin is the most critical finding to report immediately as it directly indicates cardiac
muscle injury and guides urgent treatment decisions.
Question 3
A client is admitted with a deep and productive cough, hemoptysis, and a low-
grade fever. The client's Mantoux skin test has 15mm induration. Which
intervention should the nurse implement first?
Table
, Options
A. Initiate airborne particulate isolation precautions
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Obtain sputum cultures
D. Start anti-tuberculosis medications
Correct Answer:
A. Initiate airborne particulate isolation precautions
Rationale: A Mantoux test with ≥15mm induration in a symptomatic client (cough,
hemoptysis, fever) strongly suggests active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). TB is
transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. The nurse's first priority is to protect staff and
other patients by implementing airborne isolation (negative pressure room, N95
respirators) before any other interventions. This follows infection control hierarchy:
protect others first, then proceed with diagnostics and treatment.
Question 4
A client is receiving combination chemotherapy for treatment of metastatic
carcinoma. When monitoring the client for systemic side effects, which
assessment findings warrant intervention by the nurse?
Table
Options
A. Leukopenia
B. Mild nausea
C. Alopecia
, D446 OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization
RESPIRATORY
Table
# Topic Key Points
1 TB Latent vs. Latent: Asymptomatic, non-contagious, +TST,
Active normal CXR. Active: Symptomatic (fever, night
sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis), contagious
2 TB Precautions Airborne precautions: N95 + negative pressure room
3 TB Medications RIPE = Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide,
Ethambutol
4 Rifampin Side Orange urine/tears (normal)
Effect
5 Isoniazid Side Peripheral neuropathy → give vitamin B6
Effect
6 Ethambutol Side Optic neuritis → blurred vision
Effect
7 TB Compliance Directly Observed Therapy (DOT)
Gold Standard
41 Thoracentesis Sitting leaning forward
Position
, WGU D446
Adult Health II
Objective Assessment
(2 Full Exams Set)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢160+ OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢250+ OA Review Questions & Answers
➢OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization
Adult Health II
Objective Assessment
(2 Full Exams Set)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢160+ OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢250+ OA Review Questions & Answers
➢OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any
study resources, feel free to Message me."
,Table of Contents
D446 OA EXAM SET 1 ....................................................................... 2
D446 OA EXAM SET 2 ..................................................................... 68
D446 OA Review 250+ Questions & Answer Review ........... 143
D446 OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization .................... 181
D446 OA EXAM SET 1
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI). Which data warrants the
most immediate intervention by the nurse?
Table
Option Response
a. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L
b. Dry skin with inelastic turgor
c. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
d. Polyuria and excessive thirst
Correct Answer:
a. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by deficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
or renal unresponsiveness to ADH, resulting in massive diuresis and hypernatremia. A
serum sodium of 185 mEq/L represents severe hypernatremia (normal: 135-145
,mEq/L) and indicates profound dehydration with risk of neurological complications,
including seizures, cerebral edema upon correction, and death. This is a life-threatening
electrolyte imbalance requiring immediate intervention. While dry skin (b) and
tachycardia (c) indicate dehydration, and polyuria/thirst (d) are expected findings in DI,
none are as immediately life-threatening as severe hypernatremia.
Question 2
The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic
ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this
medical diagnosis?
Table
Option Response
a. Frequent use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion
b. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods
c. Upper mid-abdominal pain described as gnawing and burning
d. Marked loss of weight and appetite over the last 3 or 4 months
Correct Answer:
c. Upper mid-abdominal pain described as gnawing and burning
Rationale: The classic symptom of PUD is epigastric or upper mid-abdominal pain
described as gnawing, burning, or aching, often occurring 1-3 hours after meals or
during the night. This pain pattern is pathognomonic for ulcer disease. While antacid
use (a) may indicate dyspepsia, it is nonspecific. Severe cramps and diarrhea after
spicy foods (b) suggests food intolerance or irritable bowel syndrome. Marked weight
loss and anorexia over months (d) is more indicative of gastric cancer than
uncomplicated PUD.
Question 3
,The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and
observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed
appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the
nurse include in this client's plan of care?
Table
Option Response
a. Assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure
b. Prepare to administer intravenous levothyroxine
c. Review the client's serum electrolyte values
d. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops
Correct Answer:
d. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops
Rationale: Protuberant eyeballs describe exophthalmos, a hallmark of Graves'
ophthalmopathy associated with hyperthyroidism. The protrusion prevents complete
eyelid closure (lagophthalmos), leading to corneal drying, ulceration, and potential
vision loss. Artificial tears and lubricating ointments are essential to maintain corneal
moisture. Levothyroxine (b) is contraindicated—it is used for hypothyroidism, not
hyperthyroidism. Increased ICP (a) and electrolytes (c) are unrelated to this ocular
manifestation.
Question 4
To reduce the risk for pulmonary complications for a client with amyotrophic
lateral sclerosis (ALS), which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select
all that apply)
Table
, D446 OA EXAM SET 2
Question 1
A client is hospitalized after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). To reduce
cardiac workload, which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan
of care?
Table
Options
A. Provide a bedside commode for toileting
B. Encourage ambulation three times daily
C. Have the client perform range-of-motion exercises in bed
D. Allow the client to use the bathroom independently
Correct Answer:
A. Provide a bedside commode for toileting
Rationale: Post-MI, cardiac workload must be minimized. Using a bedside commode
reduces energy expenditure and cardiac demand compared to walking to the bathroom.
The Valsalva maneuver during straining also increases intrathoracic pressure, reducing
venous return and cardiac output. A bedside commode minimizes these risks while
maintaining dignity. Independent bathroom use and ambulation increase cardiac
workload and are inappropriate during acute recovery.
,Question 2
A client is admitted to the hospital for shortness of breath and chest pain after an
episode of syncope. Which laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to
report to the healthcare provider?
Table
Options
A. Troponin I
B. Complete blood count (CBC)
C. Serum potassium
D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct Answer:
A. Troponin I
Rationale: Troponin I is a cardiac-specific biomarker that indicates myocardial cell
damage. In a client presenting with syncope, chest pain, and shortness of breath,
elevated troponin suggests acute myocardial infarction or other cardiac event requiring
immediate intervention. While CBC, potassium, and BUN provide valuable information,
troponin is the most critical finding to report immediately as it directly indicates cardiac
muscle injury and guides urgent treatment decisions.
Question 3
A client is admitted with a deep and productive cough, hemoptysis, and a low-
grade fever. The client's Mantoux skin test has 15mm induration. Which
intervention should the nurse implement first?
Table
, Options
A. Initiate airborne particulate isolation precautions
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Obtain sputum cultures
D. Start anti-tuberculosis medications
Correct Answer:
A. Initiate airborne particulate isolation precautions
Rationale: A Mantoux test with ≥15mm induration in a symptomatic client (cough,
hemoptysis, fever) strongly suggests active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). TB is
transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. The nurse's first priority is to protect staff and
other patients by implementing airborne isolation (negative pressure room, N95
respirators) before any other interventions. This follows infection control hierarchy:
protect others first, then proceed with diagnostics and treatment.
Question 4
A client is receiving combination chemotherapy for treatment of metastatic
carcinoma. When monitoring the client for systemic side effects, which
assessment findings warrant intervention by the nurse?
Table
Options
A. Leukopenia
B. Mild nausea
C. Alopecia
, D446 OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization
RESPIRATORY
Table
# Topic Key Points
1 TB Latent vs. Latent: Asymptomatic, non-contagious, +TST,
Active normal CXR. Active: Symptomatic (fever, night
sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis), contagious
2 TB Precautions Airborne precautions: N95 + negative pressure room
3 TB Medications RIPE = Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide,
Ethambutol
4 Rifampin Side Orange urine/tears (normal)
Effect
5 Isoniazid Side Peripheral neuropathy → give vitamin B6
Effect
6 Ethambutol Side Optic neuritis → blurred vision
Effect
7 TB Compliance Directly Observed Therapy (DOT)
Gold Standard
41 Thoracentesis Sitting leaning forward
Position
, WGU D446
Adult Health II
Objective Assessment
(2 Full Exams Set)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢160+ OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢250+ OA Review Questions & Answers
➢OA Study Guide & Clinical Prioritization
