BSN Advanced Pharmacology | Exam 4 Questions With Answers
and detailed Rationales
Question 1.
A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for the management of hypertension. The nurse should
monitor for which common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hypokalemia
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B. Persistent dry cough
Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin and substance P, which
can lead to a persistent, non-productive dry cough in some patients.
Question 2.
Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving a continuous
Heparin infusion?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count only
Correct Answer: C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
Explanation: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness
of unfractionated heparin therapy.
Question 3.
A patient is diagnosed with Digoxin toxicity. Which of the following clinical manifestations
is most indicative of this condition?
A. Increased appetite
B. Hypertension
C. Visual disturbances such as yellow or green halos
D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: C. Visual disturbances such as yellow or green halos
Explanation: Visual disturbances, including yellow, green, or white halos around objects,
are classic signs of digoxin toxicity, along with bradycardia and nausea.
, Question 4.
The nurse is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a patient with heart failure. Which
electrolyte imbalance should the nurse be most concerned about?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: D. Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits aldosterone,
which can lead to the retention of potassium and subsequent hyperkalemia.
Question 5.
What is the primary mechanism of action of Warfarin?
A. Interfering with the synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
B. Inhibiting the conversion of Prothrombin to Thrombin
C. Directly inhibiting Factor Xa
D. Activating Plasminogen to Plasmin
Correct Answer: A. Interfering with the synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent
clotting factors
Explanation: Warfarin works by inhibiting the enzyme Vitamin K epoxide reductase,
thereby interfering with the hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Question 6.
Which medication is considered the drug of choice for the termination of paroxysmal
supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)?
A. Amiodarone
B. Atropine
C. Adenosine
D. Epinephrine
Correct Answer: C. Adenosine
Explanation: Adenosine is the first-line drug for PSVT due to its ability to slow conduction
through the AV node and restore normal sinus rhythm.
and detailed Rationales
Question 1.
A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for the management of hypertension. The nurse should
monitor for which common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hypokalemia
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B. Persistent dry cough
Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin and substance P, which
can lead to a persistent, non-productive dry cough in some patients.
Question 2.
Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving a continuous
Heparin infusion?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count only
Correct Answer: C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
Explanation: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness
of unfractionated heparin therapy.
Question 3.
A patient is diagnosed with Digoxin toxicity. Which of the following clinical manifestations
is most indicative of this condition?
A. Increased appetite
B. Hypertension
C. Visual disturbances such as yellow or green halos
D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: C. Visual disturbances such as yellow or green halos
Explanation: Visual disturbances, including yellow, green, or white halos around objects,
are classic signs of digoxin toxicity, along with bradycardia and nausea.
, Question 4.
The nurse is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a patient with heart failure. Which
electrolyte imbalance should the nurse be most concerned about?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: D. Hyperkalemia
Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits aldosterone,
which can lead to the retention of potassium and subsequent hyperkalemia.
Question 5.
What is the primary mechanism of action of Warfarin?
A. Interfering with the synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
B. Inhibiting the conversion of Prothrombin to Thrombin
C. Directly inhibiting Factor Xa
D. Activating Plasminogen to Plasmin
Correct Answer: A. Interfering with the synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent
clotting factors
Explanation: Warfarin works by inhibiting the enzyme Vitamin K epoxide reductase,
thereby interfering with the hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Question 6.
Which medication is considered the drug of choice for the termination of paroxysmal
supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)?
A. Amiodarone
B. Atropine
C. Adenosine
D. Epinephrine
Correct Answer: C. Adenosine
Explanation: Adenosine is the first-line drug for PSVT due to its ability to slow conduction
through the AV node and restore normal sinus rhythm.
