NR 607 Final Exam – Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatr… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NR 607 Final Exam – Diagnosis & Management in
Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum III 2026
UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NR 607 Final Exam – Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatr… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. Which of the following is the primary diagnostic requirement for Schizophrenia according to
DSM-5-TR?
A. Symptoms lasting at least one month but less than six months
B. Continuous signs of the disturbance persisting for at least six months
C. The presence of only negative symptoms for one year
D. A single episode of major depression with psychotic features
Answer: B
Rationale: DSM-5-TR requires continuous signs of disturbance for at least six months, including at least one
month of active-phase symptoms. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based
practice and improves patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct
answer (B) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
2. When monitoring a patient on Clozapine, which laboratory value is the most critical for
preventing life-threatening complications?
A. Serum Potassium
B. Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
C. C. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
D. Serum Creatinine
Answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, requiring strict monitoring of the Absolute Neutrophil
Count (ANC). Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely related distractors,
making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe,
evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
3. A 25-year-old female presents with a distinct period of abnormally elevated mood lasting at
least 4 days but less than a week, without functional impairment. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Bipolar I Disorder
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Hypomanic Episode (Bipolar II)
D. Cyclothymic Disorder
Answer: C
Rationale: A hypomanic episode lasts at least 4 consecutive days and is not severe enough to cause marked
impairment, unlike mania in Bipolar I. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate
complications, and provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this
concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NR 607 Final Exam – Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatr… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. Which side effect of Lithium should prompt immediate cessation and evaluation for toxicity?
A. Fine hand tremor
B. Coarse tremors and ataxia
C. Mild thirst
D. Weight gain
Answer: B
Rationale: Coarse tremors, ataxia, and confusion are signs of lithium toxicity, whereas fine tremors are a
common side effect. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely related
distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports
safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
5. In the treatment of ADHD in children, which class of medication is considered first-line
pharmacological therapy?
A. Alpha-2 agonists
B. SSRIs
C. Antipsychotics
D. Stimulants
Answer: D
Rationale: Stimulants (Methylphenidate and Amphetamines) are first-line for ADHD due to high efficacy and
rapid onset. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (D) requires
understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications. Recognizing this principle
allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
6. What is the hallmark difference between Delirium and Dementia?
A. Dementia has an acute onset
B. Memory loss only occurs in Dementia
C. Delirium is always irreversible
D. Delirium features a fluctuating level of consciousness
Answer: D
Rationale: Delirium is characterized by acute onset and fluctuating levels of consciousness/attention, while
Dementia is typically progressive and stable. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care,
anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to
distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NR 607 Final Exam – Diagnosis & Management in
Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum III 2026
UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NR 607 Final Exam – Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatr… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. Which of the following is the primary diagnostic requirement for Schizophrenia according to
DSM-5-TR?
A. Symptoms lasting at least one month but less than six months
B. Continuous signs of the disturbance persisting for at least six months
C. The presence of only negative symptoms for one year
D. A single episode of major depression with psychotic features
Answer: B
Rationale: DSM-5-TR requires continuous signs of disturbance for at least six months, including at least one
month of active-phase symptoms. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based
practice and improves patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct
answer (B) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
2. When monitoring a patient on Clozapine, which laboratory value is the most critical for
preventing life-threatening complications?
A. Serum Potassium
B. Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
C. C. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
D. Serum Creatinine
Answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, requiring strict monitoring of the Absolute Neutrophil
Count (ANC). Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely related distractors,
making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe,
evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
3. A 25-year-old female presents with a distinct period of abnormally elevated mood lasting at
least 4 days but less than a week, without functional impairment. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Bipolar I Disorder
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Hypomanic Episode (Bipolar II)
D. Cyclothymic Disorder
Answer: C
Rationale: A hypomanic episode lasts at least 4 consecutive days and is not severe enough to cause marked
impairment, unlike mania in Bipolar I. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate
complications, and provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this
concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NR 607 Final Exam – Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatr… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. Which side effect of Lithium should prompt immediate cessation and evaluation for toxicity?
A. Fine hand tremor
B. Coarse tremors and ataxia
C. Mild thirst
D. Weight gain
Answer: B
Rationale: Coarse tremors, ataxia, and confusion are signs of lithium toxicity, whereas fine tremors are a
common side effect. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely related
distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports
safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
5. In the treatment of ADHD in children, which class of medication is considered first-line
pharmacological therapy?
A. Alpha-2 agonists
B. SSRIs
C. Antipsychotics
D. Stimulants
Answer: D
Rationale: Stimulants (Methylphenidate and Amphetamines) are first-line for ADHD due to high efficacy and
rapid onset. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (D) requires
understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications. Recognizing this principle
allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
6. What is the hallmark difference between Delirium and Dementia?
A. Dementia has an acute onset
B. Memory loss only occurs in Dementia
C. Delirium is always irreversible
D. Delirium features a fluctuating level of consciousness
Answer: D
Rationale: Delirium is characterized by acute onset and fluctuating levels of consciousness/attention, while
Dementia is typically progressive and stable. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care,
anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to
distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
