C O M P R E H E N S I V E S T U DY G U I D E · H S C 2 0 3
P AT H O P H Y S I O L O G Y
Pathophysiology
Midterm
Examination
2026 – 2027
150 verified questions with comprehensive
rationales covering cellular biology, fluid and
electrolyte imbalances, inflammation and immunity,
cardiovascular and respiratory pathophysiology,
renal and neurologic disorders, hematologic
conditions, and principles of disease. Aligned with
the latest NCLEX-RN and HESI exam blueprints.
Jersey College of Nursing
Academic Year 2026 – 2027
150 Questions · 8 Sections · A+ Graded Rationales
J E R S E Y C O L L E G E · H S C 2 0 3 PAT H O P H Y S I O L O G Y · M I D T E R M
REVIEW
,Section 1: Cellular Biology, Genetics, and Membrane Transport
(Q1-Q20) 2
Section 2: Cellular Adaptation, Injury, and Neoplasia (Q21-Q40) 6
Section 3: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances (Q41-Q60) 10
Section 4: Inflammation, Immunity, and Tissue Repair (Q61-Q80) 14
Section 5: Cardiovascular, Respiratory, and Renal Pathophysiology
(Q81-Q100) 18
Section 6: Hematologic, Neurologic, and Endocrine Disorders
(Q101-Q120) 22
Section 7: Principles of Disease (Q121-Q135) 26
Section 8: Integrated Clinical Scenarios and Critical Thinking
(Q136-Q150) 29
,Section 1: Cellular Biology, Genetics, and Membrane Transport
(Q1-Q20)
Q1: A nursing instructor asks a student to define pathophysiology. Which response
indicates accurate understanding?
A. The laboratory study of cell and tissue changes associated with disease
B. The study of functional or pathologic changes in the body that result from disease
processes **[CORRECT]**
C. The science of tracking the pattern or occurrence of disease within a population
D. The study of the causes of disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pathophysiology is the study of functional or pathologic changes in the body resulting from
disease processes. Option A describes pathology, Option C describes epidemiology, and Option D
describes etiology. These distinctions are foundational to the HSC203 curriculum and commonly tested
on NCLEX-RN and HESI per Porth's Pathophysiology.
Q2: A nurse reviews a patient chart noting the term 'lesion.' A lesion is:
A. A specific local change in the tissue **[CORRECT]**
B. A set of signs and symptoms occurring together as part of a specific disease process
C. The probability of specific outcomes of a disease
D. The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A lesion is a specific local change in the tissue. Option B describes a syndrome, C describes
prognosis, and D describes mortality. Understanding these terms is essential for accurate clinical
documentation per the HSC203 curriculum.
Q3: A patient presents with fever of 101.5F and a raised, erythematous skin rash.
These are:
A. Symptoms, because they are subjective findings
B. Signs, because they are objective indicators of disease **[CORRECT]**
C. Syndromes, because they occur together
D. Lesions, because they represent local tissue changes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Signs are objective indicators observable by others, such as fever and visible rash.
Symptoms are subjective (pain, nausea), syndromes are collections of signs/symptoms, and lesions are
local tissue changes. Differentiating signs from symptoms is core to nursing assessment.
Q4: An HIV-positive patient reports no clinical manifestations. The disease stage is:
A. Prodromal period
B. Acute stage
C. Chronic stage
D. Latent (silent) stage **[CORRECT]**
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The latent (silent) stage has no evident clinical signs; in infectious disease this is the
incubation period. Pathological changes may occur at the cellular level but the patient remains
asymptomatic. HIV patients can remain latent for years before progressing to AIDS.
, Q5: Passive transport does NOT require:
A. A concentration gradient
B. Cellular energy in the form of ATP **[CORRECT]**
C. A semipermeable membrane
D. Membrane permeability to the substance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Passive transport moves substances down their concentration gradient without ATP. A
concentration gradient, semipermeable membrane, and membrane permeability are required. Active
transport requires ATP to move against the gradient, a key distinction for cellular pathophysiology.
Q6: The sodium-potassium pump is classified as:
A. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Active transport **[CORRECT]**
D. Osmosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Na+/K+-ATPase pump is primary active transport moving 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in
against their gradients using ATP. Simple diffusion and osmosis are passive; facilitated diffusion is
passive but requires a carrier. The pump maintains resting membrane potential and nerve impulse
transmission.
Q7: A patient with severe dehydration has elevated hematocrit. This is most related
to:
A. Increased red blood cell production
B. Hemoconcentration due to decreased plasma volume **[CORRECT]**
C. Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
D. Hemodilution from excessive IV fluids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dehydration causes hemoconcentration: plasma volume decreases while cellular elements
stay constant, elevating hematocrit. Not from increased RBC production, decreased oxygen capacity,
or hemodilution. Dehydration also presents with decreased skin turgor and concentrated urine.
Q8: The difference between etiology and pathogenesis is:
A. Etiology refers to outcomes; pathogenesis refers to causes
B. Etiology studies disease causes; pathogenesis describes disease development and
progression **[CORRECT]**
C. Etiology tracks disease patterns; pathogenesis studies lab cell changes
D. They are synonymous terms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Etiology studies disease causes (bacteria, toxins, mutations), while pathogenesis describes
step-by-step disease development. Etiology answers 'what caused it?' and pathogenesis answers 'how
does it develop?' This distinction is fundamental to HSC203 and NCLEX-RN/HESI preparation.
Q9: Which organelle is primarily responsible for ATP production?
A. Ribosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria **[CORRECT]**
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mitochondria produce ATP through aerobic respiration (Krebs cycle, electron transport
chain). Ribosomes synthesize proteins, the Golgi apparatus packages proteins, and the ER synthesizes
proteins and lipids. Understanding organelle function is essential for cellular pathophysiology.
P AT H O P H Y S I O L O G Y
Pathophysiology
Midterm
Examination
2026 – 2027
150 verified questions with comprehensive
rationales covering cellular biology, fluid and
electrolyte imbalances, inflammation and immunity,
cardiovascular and respiratory pathophysiology,
renal and neurologic disorders, hematologic
conditions, and principles of disease. Aligned with
the latest NCLEX-RN and HESI exam blueprints.
Jersey College of Nursing
Academic Year 2026 – 2027
150 Questions · 8 Sections · A+ Graded Rationales
J E R S E Y C O L L E G E · H S C 2 0 3 PAT H O P H Y S I O L O G Y · M I D T E R M
REVIEW
,Section 1: Cellular Biology, Genetics, and Membrane Transport
(Q1-Q20) 2
Section 2: Cellular Adaptation, Injury, and Neoplasia (Q21-Q40) 6
Section 3: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances (Q41-Q60) 10
Section 4: Inflammation, Immunity, and Tissue Repair (Q61-Q80) 14
Section 5: Cardiovascular, Respiratory, and Renal Pathophysiology
(Q81-Q100) 18
Section 6: Hematologic, Neurologic, and Endocrine Disorders
(Q101-Q120) 22
Section 7: Principles of Disease (Q121-Q135) 26
Section 8: Integrated Clinical Scenarios and Critical Thinking
(Q136-Q150) 29
,Section 1: Cellular Biology, Genetics, and Membrane Transport
(Q1-Q20)
Q1: A nursing instructor asks a student to define pathophysiology. Which response
indicates accurate understanding?
A. The laboratory study of cell and tissue changes associated with disease
B. The study of functional or pathologic changes in the body that result from disease
processes **[CORRECT]**
C. The science of tracking the pattern or occurrence of disease within a population
D. The study of the causes of disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pathophysiology is the study of functional or pathologic changes in the body resulting from
disease processes. Option A describes pathology, Option C describes epidemiology, and Option D
describes etiology. These distinctions are foundational to the HSC203 curriculum and commonly tested
on NCLEX-RN and HESI per Porth's Pathophysiology.
Q2: A nurse reviews a patient chart noting the term 'lesion.' A lesion is:
A. A specific local change in the tissue **[CORRECT]**
B. A set of signs and symptoms occurring together as part of a specific disease process
C. The probability of specific outcomes of a disease
D. The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A lesion is a specific local change in the tissue. Option B describes a syndrome, C describes
prognosis, and D describes mortality. Understanding these terms is essential for accurate clinical
documentation per the HSC203 curriculum.
Q3: A patient presents with fever of 101.5F and a raised, erythematous skin rash.
These are:
A. Symptoms, because they are subjective findings
B. Signs, because they are objective indicators of disease **[CORRECT]**
C. Syndromes, because they occur together
D. Lesions, because they represent local tissue changes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Signs are objective indicators observable by others, such as fever and visible rash.
Symptoms are subjective (pain, nausea), syndromes are collections of signs/symptoms, and lesions are
local tissue changes. Differentiating signs from symptoms is core to nursing assessment.
Q4: An HIV-positive patient reports no clinical manifestations. The disease stage is:
A. Prodromal period
B. Acute stage
C. Chronic stage
D. Latent (silent) stage **[CORRECT]**
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The latent (silent) stage has no evident clinical signs; in infectious disease this is the
incubation period. Pathological changes may occur at the cellular level but the patient remains
asymptomatic. HIV patients can remain latent for years before progressing to AIDS.
, Q5: Passive transport does NOT require:
A. A concentration gradient
B. Cellular energy in the form of ATP **[CORRECT]**
C. A semipermeable membrane
D. Membrane permeability to the substance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Passive transport moves substances down their concentration gradient without ATP. A
concentration gradient, semipermeable membrane, and membrane permeability are required. Active
transport requires ATP to move against the gradient, a key distinction for cellular pathophysiology.
Q6: The sodium-potassium pump is classified as:
A. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Active transport **[CORRECT]**
D. Osmosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Na+/K+-ATPase pump is primary active transport moving 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in
against their gradients using ATP. Simple diffusion and osmosis are passive; facilitated diffusion is
passive but requires a carrier. The pump maintains resting membrane potential and nerve impulse
transmission.
Q7: A patient with severe dehydration has elevated hematocrit. This is most related
to:
A. Increased red blood cell production
B. Hemoconcentration due to decreased plasma volume **[CORRECT]**
C. Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
D. Hemodilution from excessive IV fluids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dehydration causes hemoconcentration: plasma volume decreases while cellular elements
stay constant, elevating hematocrit. Not from increased RBC production, decreased oxygen capacity,
or hemodilution. Dehydration also presents with decreased skin turgor and concentrated urine.
Q8: The difference between etiology and pathogenesis is:
A. Etiology refers to outcomes; pathogenesis refers to causes
B. Etiology studies disease causes; pathogenesis describes disease development and
progression **[CORRECT]**
C. Etiology tracks disease patterns; pathogenesis studies lab cell changes
D. They are synonymous terms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Etiology studies disease causes (bacteria, toxins, mutations), while pathogenesis describes
step-by-step disease development. Etiology answers 'what caused it?' and pathogenesis answers 'how
does it develop?' This distinction is fundamental to HSC203 and NCLEX-RN/HESI preparation.
Q9: Which organelle is primarily responsible for ATP production?
A. Ribosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria **[CORRECT]**
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mitochondria produce ATP through aerobic respiration (Krebs cycle, electron transport
chain). Ribosomes synthesize proteins, the Golgi apparatus packages proteins, and the ER synthesizes
proteins and lipids. Understanding organelle function is essential for cellular pathophysiology.
