2023 ATI RN
MENTAL HEALTH
2 VERSION EXAMS PREP
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE “SCENARIOS”)
Get a Level 2 or Higher!
WHAT YOU WILL GET:
➢correct answers with detailed rationales
➢ EACH EXAM SET HAS 70 QUESTIONS
Not affiliated with ATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
, Preview Questions Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any
study resources, feel free to Message me."
,Table of Contents
SET 1 EXAM ......................................................... 2
SET 2 EXAM ....................................................... 36
SET 1 EXAM
Question 1. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who recently
experienced partner violence. The nurse is reviewing the client’s medical record at
discharge. For each finding, the nurse should specify whether the finding indicates a
potential improvement or a worsening of the client’s physical or psychological status.
Table
Findings at Discharge Indicates Potential Indicates Potential
Improvement Worsening
Client claims responsibility for the ✓
physical altercation
Client’s reported pain level of left ✓
wrist
Client states that the partner will ✓
not be violent in the future
Client agrees to an appointment ✓
with a social worker
, Findings at Discharge Indicates Potential Indicates Potential
Improvement Worsening
Client requests help developing a ✓
safety plan
Rationale: Claiming responsibility for the altercation reflects internalized blame and
minimization of abuse, which is a worsening psychological indicator. Reporting pain
indicates an unresolved physical issue. Stating the partner will not be violent again
reflects denial and increases risk for return to the abusive relationship. Agreeing to see a
social worker and requesting a safety plan demonstrate active steps toward protection
and recovery, indicating psychological improvement.
Question 2. A nurse is caring for a client. Complete the following diagram by
identifying the condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse
should take, and two parameters the nurse should monitor.
Table
Category Selection
Potential Condition Anxiety
Actions to Take Administer PRN anti-anxiety medication
Encourage the client to participate in coping skills training
Parameters to Monitor Blood pressure
Heart rate
Rationale: The vital signs shown (BP 112/68, HR 64/min, RR 12/min, Temp 37°C, O₂ sat
98%) are within normal limits; however, in the context of a mental health assessment
with a diagram format, the nurse should identify anxiety as a potential condition.
Appropriate actions include PRN anti-anxiety medication and coping skills training. Blood
,pressure and heart rate are key parameters to monitor because anxiety can cause
sympathetic nervous system activation, leading to tachycardia and hypertension.
Question 3. A nurse is caring for a client who states, “I have been having trouble
sleeping for the last several months.” Which of the following responses should the
nurse make?
A. “You should avoid stressful activities prior to going to sleep.”
B. “You should take a 2-hour nap during the afternoon.”
C. “You should relax by watching a television show in bed before going to sleep.”
D. “You should plan to exercise 2 hours before going to sleep.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Avoiding stressful activities before bedtime is an appropriate sleep hygiene
measure. A 2-hour afternoon nap (B) can disrupt nighttime sleep. Watching television in
bed (C) can interfere with the sleep environment and circadian rhythm. Exercising too
close to bedtime (D) can be stimulating and delay sleep onset.
Question 4. A nurse is recommending community resources for a client who has a
chronic mental illness and agrees to outpatient treatment. Which of the following
outpatient care settings should the nurse identify as a community resource for the
client?
A. Intensive outpatient programs (IOPs)
B. Partial hospitalization programs (PHPs)
C. Assertive community treatment (ACT)
D. Patient-centered medical homes (PCMHs)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assertive community treatment (ACT) is a community-based model designed
specifically for clients with chronic mental illness who need multidisciplinary support in
the outpatient setting. IOPs and PHPs are structured treatment programs but are not the
,same as community-based ACT teams. PCMHs focus on primary medical care
coordination rather than intensive community mental health support.
Question 5. A nurse is caring for a client who is under observation for suicidal ideation
and has verbalized a suicide plan. The client demands privacy and to be left alone.
Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
A. “If you complete a contract that states you will not harm yourself, you can be alone.”
B. “Until your medication has reached therapeutic levels, you will need constant
observation.”
C. “We are concerned about you and need to keep you safe.”
D. “Since you are trying to follow the treatment plan, we can submit your request to the
provider.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A client with a verbalized suicide plan requires constant observation and
cannot be left alone. Option C communicates concern and maintains safety without
bargaining or giving false hope. Option A is unsafe because a no-harm contract does not
replace observation. Option B incorrectly ties safety to medication levels. Option D
delays necessary safety intervention.
Question 6. A nurse on an inpatient mental health unit is caring for a client who has
obsessive-compulsive disorder, diagnosed 4 years ago. The nurse is discussing the
assessment findings on day 3 of admission during the 1900 change-of-shift report. For
each finding, the nurse should specify whether it indicates potential improvement or
worsening.
Table
, Findings Indicates Potential Indicates Potential
Improvement Worsening
Hygiene ✓
Giving away car ✓
Rapid change in mood ✓
Food intake ✓
Condition of skin on right ✓
hand
Rationale: Improved hygiene and food intake indicate positive response to treatment.
Giving away possessions can signal worsening depression or suicidal intent. Rapid mood
changes may indicate emotional dysregulation or worsening psychiatric status. Improved
skin condition on the hand suggests decreased compulsive hand-washing behavior,
indicating improvement in OCD symptoms.
Question 7. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia.
The nurse is preparing to administer medications at 0800 on day 4 of admission.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options: “The nurse should
clarify the prescription for __________ as evidenced by the client’s __________.”
,A. haloperidol … blood pressure of 122/74 mm Hg
B. risperidone … respiratory rate of 18/min
C. olanzapine … pulse rate of 86/min
D. clozapine … temperature of 37°C (98.6°F)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 18/min (up from 16/min on day 1) in a client taking
risperidone warrants clarification because atypical antipsychotics can cause respiratory
complications and sedation. While vital signs are relatively stable, any subtle change in
respiratory status during antipsychotic therapy should be verified with the provider to
rule out medication adverse effects. The other options do not present clinically
significant changes requiring prescription clarification.
Question 9. A nurse working in an outpatient mental health facility is caring for a client
who has anxiety and was discharged from an inpatient mental health facility 1 week
ago. The nurse should identify which of the following findings in the Nurse’s Notes
indicate an improvement in the client’s condition? (Select all that apply.)
A. Client appears to be well-groomed.
B. Client’s current weight is 54 kg (119 lb).
C. Client states they are sleeping 5 to 6 hr per night but having an occasional nightmare.
D. Verbalizes decreased appetite and gastrointestinal discomfort.
E. Client states, “I feel anxious about leaving my house. I feel like everyone is staring at
me and judging me.”
F. Verbalizes that bullying experienced during high school has led to anxiety.
G. Client engages in thought-stopping behavioral therapy and cognitive restructuring.
H. Client reports taking escitalopram 20 mg daily 2 hr after breakfast.
Correct Answers: A, C, G
Rationale: Being well-groomed (A) indicates improved self-care. Sleeping 5–6 hours with
only occasional nightmares (C) is improved from the previous 3–4 hours with recurrent
nightmares. Engaging in thought-stopping and cognitive restructuring (G) demonstrates
active use of therapeutic coping skills. Decreased appetite (D), continued social anxiety
,(E), and focus on past bullying (F) indicate persistent symptoms. Weight of 54 kg (B)
reflects continued low weight. Taking escitalopram 2 hours after breakfast (H) is a
medication administration timing issue, not necessarily an improvement indicator.
Question 10. A nurse in a mental health clinic is assessing a client who has borderline
personality disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Reluctance to discard worthless objects
B. Avoidance of interpersonal relationships
C. Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment
D. Inability to maintain employment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment is a hallmark characteristic of
borderline personality disorder. Reluctance to discard objects (A) is associated with
hoarding disorder. Avoidance of relationships (B) is more characteristic of schizoid or
avoidant personality disorders. Inability to maintain employment (D) can occur but is not
the defining feature.
Question 11. A nurse is caring for a client who is involuntarily admitted for major
depressive disorder and refuses to take a prescribed oral anti-anxiety medication.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inform the client that he does not have the right to refuse the medication.
B. Offer the client the medication at the next scheduled dose time.
C. Administer the medication to the client via IM injection.
D. Explain legal consequences until the client takes the medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Even with involuntary admission, clients have the right to refuse medications
unless they are a danger to self or others or are deemed legally incompetent. The nurse
, should accept the refusal, document it, and offer the medication again at the next
scheduled time. Forcing medication (C) or using coercion (A, D) violates client rights and
ethical principles.
Question 12. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed massage therapy to treat
panic disorder. The client states, “I can’t stand to be touched by another person.”
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. “I will tell your provider that you would like a treatment other than massage.”
B. “Don’t worry about it. Your anxiety will lessen once the massage begins.”
C. “I will request that the massage therapist wear gloves during your treatment.”
D. “Why don’t you like to be touched by others?”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should advocate for the client by communicating the client’s
discomfort to the provider so an alternative therapy can be offered. Dismissing the
concern (B) or asking “why” questions (D) is non-therapeutic. Requesting gloves (C) does
not address the client’s stated aversion to being touched.
Question 13. A nurse is reviewing new prescriptions for a client who is experiencing
acute manifestations of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications
should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe for this client?
A. Buprenorphine
B. Disulfiram
C. Bupropion
D. Chlordiazepoxide
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, is the medication of choice for managing
acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms and preventing seizures and delirium tremens.
Buprenorphine (A) is used for opioid use disorder. Disulfiram (B) is a maintenance
MENTAL HEALTH
2 VERSION EXAMS PREP
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE “SCENARIOS”)
Get a Level 2 or Higher!
WHAT YOU WILL GET:
➢correct answers with detailed rationales
➢ EACH EXAM SET HAS 70 QUESTIONS
Not affiliated with ATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
, Preview Questions Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any
study resources, feel free to Message me."
,Table of Contents
SET 1 EXAM ......................................................... 2
SET 2 EXAM ....................................................... 36
SET 1 EXAM
Question 1. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who recently
experienced partner violence. The nurse is reviewing the client’s medical record at
discharge. For each finding, the nurse should specify whether the finding indicates a
potential improvement or a worsening of the client’s physical or psychological status.
Table
Findings at Discharge Indicates Potential Indicates Potential
Improvement Worsening
Client claims responsibility for the ✓
physical altercation
Client’s reported pain level of left ✓
wrist
Client states that the partner will ✓
not be violent in the future
Client agrees to an appointment ✓
with a social worker
, Findings at Discharge Indicates Potential Indicates Potential
Improvement Worsening
Client requests help developing a ✓
safety plan
Rationale: Claiming responsibility for the altercation reflects internalized blame and
minimization of abuse, which is a worsening psychological indicator. Reporting pain
indicates an unresolved physical issue. Stating the partner will not be violent again
reflects denial and increases risk for return to the abusive relationship. Agreeing to see a
social worker and requesting a safety plan demonstrate active steps toward protection
and recovery, indicating psychological improvement.
Question 2. A nurse is caring for a client. Complete the following diagram by
identifying the condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse
should take, and two parameters the nurse should monitor.
Table
Category Selection
Potential Condition Anxiety
Actions to Take Administer PRN anti-anxiety medication
Encourage the client to participate in coping skills training
Parameters to Monitor Blood pressure
Heart rate
Rationale: The vital signs shown (BP 112/68, HR 64/min, RR 12/min, Temp 37°C, O₂ sat
98%) are within normal limits; however, in the context of a mental health assessment
with a diagram format, the nurse should identify anxiety as a potential condition.
Appropriate actions include PRN anti-anxiety medication and coping skills training. Blood
,pressure and heart rate are key parameters to monitor because anxiety can cause
sympathetic nervous system activation, leading to tachycardia and hypertension.
Question 3. A nurse is caring for a client who states, “I have been having trouble
sleeping for the last several months.” Which of the following responses should the
nurse make?
A. “You should avoid stressful activities prior to going to sleep.”
B. “You should take a 2-hour nap during the afternoon.”
C. “You should relax by watching a television show in bed before going to sleep.”
D. “You should plan to exercise 2 hours before going to sleep.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Avoiding stressful activities before bedtime is an appropriate sleep hygiene
measure. A 2-hour afternoon nap (B) can disrupt nighttime sleep. Watching television in
bed (C) can interfere with the sleep environment and circadian rhythm. Exercising too
close to bedtime (D) can be stimulating and delay sleep onset.
Question 4. A nurse is recommending community resources for a client who has a
chronic mental illness and agrees to outpatient treatment. Which of the following
outpatient care settings should the nurse identify as a community resource for the
client?
A. Intensive outpatient programs (IOPs)
B. Partial hospitalization programs (PHPs)
C. Assertive community treatment (ACT)
D. Patient-centered medical homes (PCMHs)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assertive community treatment (ACT) is a community-based model designed
specifically for clients with chronic mental illness who need multidisciplinary support in
the outpatient setting. IOPs and PHPs are structured treatment programs but are not the
,same as community-based ACT teams. PCMHs focus on primary medical care
coordination rather than intensive community mental health support.
Question 5. A nurse is caring for a client who is under observation for suicidal ideation
and has verbalized a suicide plan. The client demands privacy and to be left alone.
Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
A. “If you complete a contract that states you will not harm yourself, you can be alone.”
B. “Until your medication has reached therapeutic levels, you will need constant
observation.”
C. “We are concerned about you and need to keep you safe.”
D. “Since you are trying to follow the treatment plan, we can submit your request to the
provider.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A client with a verbalized suicide plan requires constant observation and
cannot be left alone. Option C communicates concern and maintains safety without
bargaining or giving false hope. Option A is unsafe because a no-harm contract does not
replace observation. Option B incorrectly ties safety to medication levels. Option D
delays necessary safety intervention.
Question 6. A nurse on an inpatient mental health unit is caring for a client who has
obsessive-compulsive disorder, diagnosed 4 years ago. The nurse is discussing the
assessment findings on day 3 of admission during the 1900 change-of-shift report. For
each finding, the nurse should specify whether it indicates potential improvement or
worsening.
Table
, Findings Indicates Potential Indicates Potential
Improvement Worsening
Hygiene ✓
Giving away car ✓
Rapid change in mood ✓
Food intake ✓
Condition of skin on right ✓
hand
Rationale: Improved hygiene and food intake indicate positive response to treatment.
Giving away possessions can signal worsening depression or suicidal intent. Rapid mood
changes may indicate emotional dysregulation or worsening psychiatric status. Improved
skin condition on the hand suggests decreased compulsive hand-washing behavior,
indicating improvement in OCD symptoms.
Question 7. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia.
The nurse is preparing to administer medications at 0800 on day 4 of admission.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options: “The nurse should
clarify the prescription for __________ as evidenced by the client’s __________.”
,A. haloperidol … blood pressure of 122/74 mm Hg
B. risperidone … respiratory rate of 18/min
C. olanzapine … pulse rate of 86/min
D. clozapine … temperature of 37°C (98.6°F)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 18/min (up from 16/min on day 1) in a client taking
risperidone warrants clarification because atypical antipsychotics can cause respiratory
complications and sedation. While vital signs are relatively stable, any subtle change in
respiratory status during antipsychotic therapy should be verified with the provider to
rule out medication adverse effects. The other options do not present clinically
significant changes requiring prescription clarification.
Question 9. A nurse working in an outpatient mental health facility is caring for a client
who has anxiety and was discharged from an inpatient mental health facility 1 week
ago. The nurse should identify which of the following findings in the Nurse’s Notes
indicate an improvement in the client’s condition? (Select all that apply.)
A. Client appears to be well-groomed.
B. Client’s current weight is 54 kg (119 lb).
C. Client states they are sleeping 5 to 6 hr per night but having an occasional nightmare.
D. Verbalizes decreased appetite and gastrointestinal discomfort.
E. Client states, “I feel anxious about leaving my house. I feel like everyone is staring at
me and judging me.”
F. Verbalizes that bullying experienced during high school has led to anxiety.
G. Client engages in thought-stopping behavioral therapy and cognitive restructuring.
H. Client reports taking escitalopram 20 mg daily 2 hr after breakfast.
Correct Answers: A, C, G
Rationale: Being well-groomed (A) indicates improved self-care. Sleeping 5–6 hours with
only occasional nightmares (C) is improved from the previous 3–4 hours with recurrent
nightmares. Engaging in thought-stopping and cognitive restructuring (G) demonstrates
active use of therapeutic coping skills. Decreased appetite (D), continued social anxiety
,(E), and focus on past bullying (F) indicate persistent symptoms. Weight of 54 kg (B)
reflects continued low weight. Taking escitalopram 2 hours after breakfast (H) is a
medication administration timing issue, not necessarily an improvement indicator.
Question 10. A nurse in a mental health clinic is assessing a client who has borderline
personality disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Reluctance to discard worthless objects
B. Avoidance of interpersonal relationships
C. Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment
D. Inability to maintain employment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment is a hallmark characteristic of
borderline personality disorder. Reluctance to discard objects (A) is associated with
hoarding disorder. Avoidance of relationships (B) is more characteristic of schizoid or
avoidant personality disorders. Inability to maintain employment (D) can occur but is not
the defining feature.
Question 11. A nurse is caring for a client who is involuntarily admitted for major
depressive disorder and refuses to take a prescribed oral anti-anxiety medication.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inform the client that he does not have the right to refuse the medication.
B. Offer the client the medication at the next scheduled dose time.
C. Administer the medication to the client via IM injection.
D. Explain legal consequences until the client takes the medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Even with involuntary admission, clients have the right to refuse medications
unless they are a danger to self or others or are deemed legally incompetent. The nurse
, should accept the refusal, document it, and offer the medication again at the next
scheduled time. Forcing medication (C) or using coercion (A, D) violates client rights and
ethical principles.
Question 12. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed massage therapy to treat
panic disorder. The client states, “I can’t stand to be touched by another person.”
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. “I will tell your provider that you would like a treatment other than massage.”
B. “Don’t worry about it. Your anxiety will lessen once the massage begins.”
C. “I will request that the massage therapist wear gloves during your treatment.”
D. “Why don’t you like to be touched by others?”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should advocate for the client by communicating the client’s
discomfort to the provider so an alternative therapy can be offered. Dismissing the
concern (B) or asking “why” questions (D) is non-therapeutic. Requesting gloves (C) does
not address the client’s stated aversion to being touched.
Question 13. A nurse is reviewing new prescriptions for a client who is experiencing
acute manifestations of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications
should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe for this client?
A. Buprenorphine
B. Disulfiram
C. Bupropion
D. Chlordiazepoxide
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, is the medication of choice for managing
acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms and preventing seizures and delirium tremens.
Buprenorphine (A) is used for opioid use disorder. Disulfiram (B) is a maintenance
