AOCNP
EXAM REVIEW
400+ Review Qs & Terms
Board-Exam Preparation
Main Features:
• Focused AOCNP board-exam review
• Board-Prep Questions and Review Terms
• Extensive collection of Review questions and answers
• Helpful for identifying knowledge gaps
• Covers high-yield concepts
• Supports structured study and final revision
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1. 4 phases of the cell cycle
G1, S, G2 and M
2. What is the first phase of the cell cycle?
G1- cell grows in size and synthesizes mRNA and proteins that are necessary for DNA
synthesis
3. What is the second phase of the cell cycle?
S phase- DNA replication occurs; each chromosome is replicated to produce two sister
chromatids
4. What is the third phase of the cell cycle?
G2- cell continues to grow and produces new proteins and organelles; ensures that
everything is in place for a smooth division into two daughter cells
5. What is the final phase of the cell cycle?
M phase- mitosis; cell divided its copied DNA and cytoplasm to create two new cells
6. What are the two types of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)?
Typical: aka diarrhea-associated; form that most commonly occurs in children triggered by
an infection
Atypical: usually a genetic component; associated with poor prognosis and risk of
progressing to chronic kidney disease or long-term dialysis
7. What is the triad of symptoms of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)?
anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury
8. What are the key elements in a cancer treatment summary?
Demographic/contact information, disease specifics, treatment specifics, follow-up care plan,
and cancer screening recommendations
9. What is a primary concern with the use of Gemcitabine?
• Its impact on bone marrow; it can cause myelosuppression which can lead to neutropenia,
making patients more susceptible to infection
• Significant risk of bleeding/thrombocytopenia
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10. What is melphalan primarily used to treat?
Alkylating agent used to treat ovarian, multiple myeloma, rhabdomyosarcoma,
neuroblastoma, and in conditioning regimens before bone marrow transplant
11. What is ifosfamide primarily used to treat?
testicular cancer, lymphoma, and sarcomas
12. What is one of the side effects of ifosfamide?
Bladder toxicity; often given with Mesna to reduce bladder irritation and bleeding
13. What is paclitaxel primarily used to treat?
ovarian, breast, lung, and pancreatic cancers
14. Where is paclitaxel primarily metabolized and excreted?
Metabolized in the liver and eliminated through bile
15. What agents are known to cause alopecia?
etoposide, cyclophosphamide, docetaxel, doxorubicin, ifosfamide, paclitaxel
16. What are the types of cancer biomarkers?
hormones, oncofetal antigens, enzymes, proteins, genetic markers, and hormone receptors
17. What are the components of the metastatic cascade?
Detachment, invasion, survival in transport, arrest in distant organ capillary beds,
establishment of secondary tumors
18. What is the mechanism of action of monoclonal antibodies (ex: rituximab)?
they target specific antigens on cancer cells, marking them for immune destruction or
interfering with tumor growth
19. What are the common side effects of immune checkpoint inhibitors (Ex: nivolumab,
pembrolizumab)?
Immune-related adverse events: pneumonitis, colitis, hepatitis, hypothyroidism
20. What lab value is typically elevated in tumor lysis syndrome?
Uric acid, potassium, phosphate, and LDH; calcium is decreased
21. What staging system is used for lymphomas?
Ann Arbor
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22. What is nadir and when does it typically occur after chemotherapy?
Nadir is the lowest point of blood counts and usually occurs 7-14 days post-treatment (1-2
weeks)
23. What is the treatment for spinal cord compression?
high dose corticosteroids and emergent radiation or surgery
24. What is overall survival vs progression-free survival?
Overall survival is time from diagnosis/treatment to death
PFS is time during and after treatment that patient lives without progression of disease
25. What is bevacizumab's primary mechanism?
VEGF inhibitor which blocks angiogenesis
26. What genetic mutation is associated with NSCLC and EGFR inhibitor therapy?
EGFR mutation- treated with drugs like erlotinib or osimertinib
27. What are the affects of aspirin on patient prior to surgery?
Antiplatelet effect; sometimes loosely described as anticoagulative but aspirin's main
influence is on platelet function
28. What are the 3 types of anesthesia used for cancer surgeries?
Local, General, Regional
29. What is myeloablative conditioning?
Process used primarily before a patient receives bone marrow transplant or peripheral blood
stem cell transplant to cause immunosuppression or eradicate existing disease
30. What is the Area Under Curve (AUC) and how it relates to dosing in chemotherapy?
A pharmacokinetic measure that represents the total exposure of the body to a drug over
time; dose increases as target AUC increases
Dose (mg) = Target AUC x (GFR + 25)
31. Three types of biopsies for prostate cancer
1) Vacuum-assisted core needle biopsy
2) Core needle biopsy
3) Incisional biopsy
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