ANCC Med-Surg Nurse (MedSurg-BC) Lippincott Post-Test Review
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 A+ Grade Comprehensive Certification
Study Guide
Prevention and early treatment of Lyme's disease are crucial because late complications of this disease
include:
A. Sterility
B. Renal failure
C. Lung abscess
D. Arthritis - (answer)D. Arthritis
If Lyme disease goes untreated, arthritis, neurological problems, and cardiac abnormalities may arise as
a late complications. The first sign of Lyme disease is typically a skin lesion that enlarges and has a
characteristic red border. However, not all pt develop this lesion. Opt A,B,C are incorrect because they
arent complications of Lyme disease.
A pt, age 28, is admitted with a suspected malignant melanoma on his left shoulder. When performing
the physical assessment, the nurse would expect to find which of the following?
A. A brown birthmark that has lightened in color
B. An area of petechiae
C. A brown or black mole with red, white, or blue areas
D. A red birthmark that has recently become darker - (answer)C. Melanomas have an irregular shape and
lack uniformity in color. They may appear brown or black with red, white, or blue areas. Opt A,B, and D
contain inaccurate information.
A pt, age 32, is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The
practitioner orders biopsy of his facial lesions; the preliminary biopsy report indicates Kaposi's sarcoma.
Which of the following would be the nurse's best approach?
A. Tell the patient that Kaposi's sarcoma is common in people with AIDS.
B. Pretend not to notice the lesions on the patient's face.
C. Inform the patient of biopsy results, and support him emotionally
,ANCC Med-Surg Nurse (MedSurg-BC) Lippincott Post-Test Review
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 A+ Grade Comprehensive Certification
Study Guide
D. Explore the patient's feeling about his facial disfigurement - (answer)D. Facial lesions can contribute to
situational low self-esteem and a disturbed body image. Kaposi's sarcoma is among the many
psychosocial and physical traumas that may confront the patient with AIDS; anxiety , anger, grief, and
depression are common emotional responses. The nurse who works with patients who have AIDS must
develop excellent listening skills. The pt. maybe especially concerned that others will realize he has
Kaposis Sarcoma. OPT A. doesn't provide emotional support. OPT B. ignores the patient's concerns. OPT
C is incorrect because the practitioner should inform the patient of the biopsy results, not the nurse.
A pt. who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive begins zidovudine therapy. Which statement
best describes the actions of this drug?
A. It eliminates the virus that causes AIDS.
B. It interferes with viral replications
C. It stimulates the immune system
D. It clears up skin lessions - (answer)B. Ziduvudine inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis within the
virus that causes AIDS. interfering with viral replications.
During routine hygiene care for a patient with AIDS, a nurse following standard precautions would take
which actions?
A. Use reverse isolation
B. Place the pt. in a private room
C. Put on mask, gloves, and a gown
D. Wear gloves when giving mouth care - (answer)D. Standard precautions stipulate that a health care
worker who anticipates coming into contact with a pt. blood or body fluid must wear gloves; this
protects the health care worker. OPT A is incorrect because reverse isolation is used to protect the
patient from the health care worker. OPT B is incorrect because a private room doesn't provide a method
of barrier protections, which is needed for a standard precautions. OPT C is incorrect because a mask
and gloves are needed only for anticipated contact with airborne droplets of blood or body fluids; a
gown is needed only for anticipated contact with splashes or blood or body fluid.
,ANCC Med-Surg Nurse (MedSurg-BC) Lippincott Post-Test Review
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 A+ Grade Comprehensive Certification
Study Guide
When assessing the skin of a pt. with deep partial-thickness burns, what would the nurse expect to find?
A. Dry, pale areas with no blister formation
B. Blister of varying sizes, with areas of charred tissue
C. Cherry-red areas with weeping blister
D. Pearly-white areas with charred tissue - (answer)C. In partial-thickness burns, skin color varies from
pink to cherry-red. Deep second-degree burns appear cherry-red and may have blisters that ooze fluid.
OPT A and D are incorrect because they describe full-thickness burns. Opt B is incorrect because it
describes superficial partial-thickness burns.
A pt, age 23, underwent a rhinoplasty 6 hours ago. After administering his pain medications, the nurse
notes that he is swallowing frequently. What is the most likely cause of the swallowing?
A. Oral dryness caused by nasal packing
B. Bleeding posterior to the nasal packing
C. An adverse reactions to the analgesic
D. A normal response to the analgesic - (answer)B. In a pt who has nasal packing in place, frequent
swallowing may indicate bleeding in the posterior pharynx. OPT A. is incorrect because mouth dryness
causes thirst, not frequent swallowing. OPT C and D are incorrect because frequent swallowing isn't a
response to analgesic.
A pt, age 72, has otosclerosis and is scheduled for stapedectomy. During preoperative teaching, the
nurse should give him which instructions.
A. "Cough and sneeze with your mouth closed."
B. "Try to get up and walk around as soon as you return from the operating room."
C. "Lie on the bed with your operative ear facing up."
D. "Turn your head rapidly to prevent dizziness." - (answer)C. To prevent pressure on the graft site, which
may cause graft displacement, the nurse should instruct the pt. to lie on the nonoperative side. OPT A is
, ANCC Med-Surg Nurse (MedSurg-BC) Lippincott Post-Test Review
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 A+ Grade Comprehensive Certification
Study Guide
incorrect because the pt. should cough or sneeze with his mouth open, not closed, to prevent increased
pressure through the eustachian tube into the middle ear (which could displace the graft). OPT B. is
incorrect because the patient should remain in bed for 24 hours after surgery to prevent graft
displacement. OPT D is incorrect because rapid head movement could cause vertigo.
During an eye assessment, a pt. complains that "a curtain seems to be coming down in front of my eye."
This complaint suggest which condition?
A. Glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Cataract
D. Blepharitis - (answer)B. With extensive, rapidly developing retinal detachment, a pt may report the
sensation of curtain dropping down in front of his eyes. OPT A,C, and D are incorrect because glaucoma,
cataracts, and blepharitis don't cause this sensation.
A pt, age 64, is receiving treatment for heart failure. The nurse should plan to teach about which drugs?
A. Vasodilating agents, digoxin, and anti-inflammatory agents
B. Digoxin, vasodilating agents, and diuretics
C. Vasoconstricting agents, beta-adrenergic blockers, and digoxin
D. Antibiotic, vasopressors, and steroids. - (answer)B. The practitioner may prescribed digoxin for the pt
with heart failure to increase contractility and slow the heart rate (and thus improve cardiac function); a
vasodilating agent to decrease afterload; and a diuretic to reduce peripheral resistance (and thus
improve cardiac output). OPT A inaccurately suggests that anti-inflammatory agents are used to treat
heart failure; OPT C inaccurately suggests that vasoconstricting agents are used. None of the drugs listed
in OPT D are prescribed for the pt with heart failure.
When assessing the pt. with an acute dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm, the nurse would expect which
findings?
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 A+ Grade Comprehensive Certification
Study Guide
Prevention and early treatment of Lyme's disease are crucial because late complications of this disease
include:
A. Sterility
B. Renal failure
C. Lung abscess
D. Arthritis - (answer)D. Arthritis
If Lyme disease goes untreated, arthritis, neurological problems, and cardiac abnormalities may arise as
a late complications. The first sign of Lyme disease is typically a skin lesion that enlarges and has a
characteristic red border. However, not all pt develop this lesion. Opt A,B,C are incorrect because they
arent complications of Lyme disease.
A pt, age 28, is admitted with a suspected malignant melanoma on his left shoulder. When performing
the physical assessment, the nurse would expect to find which of the following?
A. A brown birthmark that has lightened in color
B. An area of petechiae
C. A brown or black mole with red, white, or blue areas
D. A red birthmark that has recently become darker - (answer)C. Melanomas have an irregular shape and
lack uniformity in color. They may appear brown or black with red, white, or blue areas. Opt A,B, and D
contain inaccurate information.
A pt, age 32, is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The
practitioner orders biopsy of his facial lesions; the preliminary biopsy report indicates Kaposi's sarcoma.
Which of the following would be the nurse's best approach?
A. Tell the patient that Kaposi's sarcoma is common in people with AIDS.
B. Pretend not to notice the lesions on the patient's face.
C. Inform the patient of biopsy results, and support him emotionally
,ANCC Med-Surg Nurse (MedSurg-BC) Lippincott Post-Test Review
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 A+ Grade Comprehensive Certification
Study Guide
D. Explore the patient's feeling about his facial disfigurement - (answer)D. Facial lesions can contribute to
situational low self-esteem and a disturbed body image. Kaposi's sarcoma is among the many
psychosocial and physical traumas that may confront the patient with AIDS; anxiety , anger, grief, and
depression are common emotional responses. The nurse who works with patients who have AIDS must
develop excellent listening skills. The pt. maybe especially concerned that others will realize he has
Kaposis Sarcoma. OPT A. doesn't provide emotional support. OPT B. ignores the patient's concerns. OPT
C is incorrect because the practitioner should inform the patient of the biopsy results, not the nurse.
A pt. who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive begins zidovudine therapy. Which statement
best describes the actions of this drug?
A. It eliminates the virus that causes AIDS.
B. It interferes with viral replications
C. It stimulates the immune system
D. It clears up skin lessions - (answer)B. Ziduvudine inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis within the
virus that causes AIDS. interfering with viral replications.
During routine hygiene care for a patient with AIDS, a nurse following standard precautions would take
which actions?
A. Use reverse isolation
B. Place the pt. in a private room
C. Put on mask, gloves, and a gown
D. Wear gloves when giving mouth care - (answer)D. Standard precautions stipulate that a health care
worker who anticipates coming into contact with a pt. blood or body fluid must wear gloves; this
protects the health care worker. OPT A is incorrect because reverse isolation is used to protect the
patient from the health care worker. OPT B is incorrect because a private room doesn't provide a method
of barrier protections, which is needed for a standard precautions. OPT C is incorrect because a mask
and gloves are needed only for anticipated contact with airborne droplets of blood or body fluids; a
gown is needed only for anticipated contact with splashes or blood or body fluid.
,ANCC Med-Surg Nurse (MedSurg-BC) Lippincott Post-Test Review
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 A+ Grade Comprehensive Certification
Study Guide
When assessing the skin of a pt. with deep partial-thickness burns, what would the nurse expect to find?
A. Dry, pale areas with no blister formation
B. Blister of varying sizes, with areas of charred tissue
C. Cherry-red areas with weeping blister
D. Pearly-white areas with charred tissue - (answer)C. In partial-thickness burns, skin color varies from
pink to cherry-red. Deep second-degree burns appear cherry-red and may have blisters that ooze fluid.
OPT A and D are incorrect because they describe full-thickness burns. Opt B is incorrect because it
describes superficial partial-thickness burns.
A pt, age 23, underwent a rhinoplasty 6 hours ago. After administering his pain medications, the nurse
notes that he is swallowing frequently. What is the most likely cause of the swallowing?
A. Oral dryness caused by nasal packing
B. Bleeding posterior to the nasal packing
C. An adverse reactions to the analgesic
D. A normal response to the analgesic - (answer)B. In a pt who has nasal packing in place, frequent
swallowing may indicate bleeding in the posterior pharynx. OPT A. is incorrect because mouth dryness
causes thirst, not frequent swallowing. OPT C and D are incorrect because frequent swallowing isn't a
response to analgesic.
A pt, age 72, has otosclerosis and is scheduled for stapedectomy. During preoperative teaching, the
nurse should give him which instructions.
A. "Cough and sneeze with your mouth closed."
B. "Try to get up and walk around as soon as you return from the operating room."
C. "Lie on the bed with your operative ear facing up."
D. "Turn your head rapidly to prevent dizziness." - (answer)C. To prevent pressure on the graft site, which
may cause graft displacement, the nurse should instruct the pt. to lie on the nonoperative side. OPT A is
, ANCC Med-Surg Nurse (MedSurg-BC) Lippincott Post-Test Review
Questions and Answers 2026/2027 A+ Grade Comprehensive Certification
Study Guide
incorrect because the pt. should cough or sneeze with his mouth open, not closed, to prevent increased
pressure through the eustachian tube into the middle ear (which could displace the graft). OPT B. is
incorrect because the patient should remain in bed for 24 hours after surgery to prevent graft
displacement. OPT D is incorrect because rapid head movement could cause vertigo.
During an eye assessment, a pt. complains that "a curtain seems to be coming down in front of my eye."
This complaint suggest which condition?
A. Glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Cataract
D. Blepharitis - (answer)B. With extensive, rapidly developing retinal detachment, a pt may report the
sensation of curtain dropping down in front of his eyes. OPT A,C, and D are incorrect because glaucoma,
cataracts, and blepharitis don't cause this sensation.
A pt, age 64, is receiving treatment for heart failure. The nurse should plan to teach about which drugs?
A. Vasodilating agents, digoxin, and anti-inflammatory agents
B. Digoxin, vasodilating agents, and diuretics
C. Vasoconstricting agents, beta-adrenergic blockers, and digoxin
D. Antibiotic, vasopressors, and steroids. - (answer)B. The practitioner may prescribed digoxin for the pt
with heart failure to increase contractility and slow the heart rate (and thus improve cardiac function); a
vasodilating agent to decrease afterload; and a diuretic to reduce peripheral resistance (and thus
improve cardiac output). OPT A inaccurately suggests that anti-inflammatory agents are used to treat
heart failure; OPT C inaccurately suggests that vasoconstricting agents are used. None of the drugs listed
in OPT D are prescribed for the pt with heart failure.
When assessing the pt. with an acute dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm, the nurse would expect which
findings?
