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Question 1
A 67-year-old man presents with gradually worsening urinary hesitancy, nocturia, postvoid
dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying for the past year. Digital rectal
examination reveals a smooth, symmetrically enlarged prostate without nodules. His PSA is
mildly elevated for age.
Which medication provides the fastest symptomatic relief?
A. Finasteride
B. Tamsulosin
C. Dutasteride
D. Bethanechol
Correct Answer
B. Tamsulosin
Rationale
Tamsulosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker that relaxes smooth muscle in the prostate and
bladder neck, improving urine flow within days. It is the preferred medication when rapid
symptom relief is desired.
Alpha blockers improve symptoms but do not shrink the prostate.
The uploaded APEA guide identifies alpha-1 blockers such as tamsulosin as providing
immediate relief, whereas 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors require several months before significant
benefit is observed.
,Why the Other Answers Are Incorrect
A. Finasteride
Reduces conversion of testosterone to DHT and gradually shrinks prostate volume. Clinical
benefit generally requires 6–12 months.
C. Dutasteride
Same mechanism as finasteride with delayed onset.
D. Bethanechol
Useful in underactive bladder or overflow incontinence—not first-line therapy for uncomplicated
BPH.
Exam Pearl
Alpha blocker = fast symptom relief.
5-alpha-reductase inhibitor = prostate shrinkage over months.
Question 2
A 58-year-old woman presents with severe unilateral eye pain, headache, nausea, halos around
lights, and sudden vision loss that began two hours ago. Examination reveals a fixed, mid-dilated
pupil and markedly elevated intraocular pressure.
Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Open-angle glaucoma
B. Optic neuritis
C. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
D. Retinal detachment
Correct Answer
C. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
,Rationale
Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ophthalmologic emergency characterized by:
• sudden severe eye pain
• rapid vision loss
• nausea/vomiting
• halos around lights
• fixed mid-dilated pupil
• markedly elevated intraocular pressure
The APEA study guide lists acute closed-angle glaucoma as causing sudden severe eye pain with
rapid vision loss.
Why the Other Answers Are Incorrect
A. Open-angle glaucoma
Usually painless and progresses gradually.
B. Optic neuritis
Pain with eye movement and decreased color vision; intraocular pressure is typically normal.
D. Retinal detachment
Produces flashes, floaters, and a "curtain" over vision rather than elevated intraocular pressure.
Exam Pearl
Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an emergency requiring immediate ophthalmology referral to
prevent permanent blindness.
Question 3
A 23-year-old woman presents with dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency. She is 14 weeks
pregnant. Urinalysis is positive for nitrites and leukocyte esterase.
What is the preferred first-line antibiotic?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin
, C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
D. Doxycycline
Correct Answer
B. Nitrofurantoin
Rationale
Nitrofurantoin is recommended as first-line therapy for uncomplicated lower urinary tract
infection during pregnancy (avoiding use near term when appropriate).
The uploaded APEA guide identifies nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) as the first-line treatment for UTI
in pregnancy.
Why the Other Answers Are Incorrect
A. Ciprofloxacin
Generally avoided during pregnancy because of fetal safety concerns.
C. TMP-SMX
Not preferred during early pregnancy and near term.
D. Doxycycline
Contraindicated in pregnancy due to effects on fetal teeth and bone development.
Exam Pearl
Pregnancy + uncomplicated cystitis = think Nitrofurantoin.
Question 4
A 69-year-old smoker presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and chronic productive
cough. Spirometry after bronchodilator administration demonstrates persistent airflow
obstruction.
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for COPD?