PROFESSIONAL ISSUES IN NURSING: CHALLENGES
AND OPPORTUNITIES 6TH EDITION – HUSTON
COMPLETE TEST BANK – QUESTIONS
Question 1:
A nurse is explaining to a patient the difference between a practical nurse (LPN/LVN)
and a registered nurse (RN). Which statement is accurate?
A) LPNs have a broader scope of practice than RNs.
B) RNs are licensed to practice independently, while LPNs practice under supervision.
C) LPNs must hold a master's degree.
D) RNs cannot delegate tasks to LPNs.
Answer: B
Rationale: RNs have an independent scope of practice and are licensed to assess, plan,
implement, and evaluate care. LPNs work under the supervision of an RN or physician and
have a more limited scope. LPNs do not need a master's degree, and RNs can delegate
appropriate tasks to LPNs.
Question 2:
A nurse is discussing the history of nursing education. Which event significantly
advanced nursing as a profession?
A) The establishment of the first nursing school by Florence Nightingale at St. Thomas'
Hospital.
B) The invention of the stethoscope.
C) The discovery of penicillin.
D) The first open-heart surgery.
Answer: A
Rationale: Florence Nightingale founded the first secular nursing school at St. Thomas'
,Hospital in London in 1860, establishing formal education and professional standards for
nursing. The other options are medical or technological advances, not educational
milestones.
Question 3:
A nurse is caring for a patient who is a member of a federally recognized tribe. Which
federal program provides healthcare services to this patient?
A) Medicare.
B) Medicaid.
C) Indian Health Service (IHS).
D) TRICARE.
Answer: C
Rationale: The Indian Health Service (IHS) is a federal program that provides healthcare to
members of federally recognized Native American and Alaska Native tribes. Medicare
serves elderly, Medicaid serves low-income, and TRICARE serves military personnel.
Question 4:
A nurse is explaining the concept of "moral distress" to a new graduate. Which situation
best exemplifies moral distress?
A) Feeling tired after a long shift.
B) Knowing the right action to take but being unable to do it due to institutional
constraints.
C) Disagreeing with a physician's treatment plan.
D) Being unsure of how to perform a procedure.
Answer: B
Rationale: Moral distress occurs when a nurse knows the ethically correct action but is
constrained by organizational policies, hierarchy, or other barriers from acting on it. It is
distinct from fatigue, disagreement, or lack of skill.
,Question 5:
A nurse is documenting care in the medical record. Which entry is legally defensible?
A) "Patient seems agitated."
B) "Patient is faking pain."
C) "Patient complained of 8/10 chest pain, grimacing, diaphoretic."
D) "Patient is non-compliant."
Answer: C
Rationale: Objective, factual, and specific documentation—including direct quotes and
observable signs—is legally defensible. Subjective opinions, judgments, and labels like
"faking" or "non-compliant" are inappropriate and potentially defamatory.
Question 6:
A nurse manager is developing a disaster preparedness plan. Which phase of disaster
management involves activities to reduce the impact of a disaster?
A) Mitigation.
B) Preparedness.
C) Response.
D) Recovery.
Answer: A
Rationale: Mitigation includes actions taken to reduce or eliminate the long-term risk and
impact of hazards (e.g., building codes, flood barriers). Preparedness plans for response,
response is the immediate action, and recovery focuses on restoration.
Question 7:
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The nurse
understands that a DNR order means:
A) The patient should receive no medical treatment at all.
B) No cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) will be attempted if the patient's heart stops.
C) The patient is not to receive any pain medication.
D) The patient must be discharged immediately.
, Answer: B
Rationale: A DNR order specifically directs that CPR should not be initiated in the event of
cardiac or respiratory arrest. It does not affect other treatments, pain management, or
discharge status.
Question 8:
A nurse is teaching a patient about advance directives. The patient asks, "What is a living
will?" The nurse responds:
A) A legal document that appoints someone to make healthcare decisions for you.
B) A legal document that specifies your wishes for medical treatment if you become
incapacitated.
C) A financial document that distributes your assets.
D) A document that requires you to accept all treatments.
Answer: B
Rationale: A living will is a written legal document that outlines a person's preferences for
medical treatments (e.g., life support, tube feeding) in the event they become unable to
communicate. A healthcare proxy appoints a surrogate, not a living will.
Question 9:
A nurse is caring for a patient who is confused and attempting to pull out an IV line. The
nurse applies soft wrist restraints. Which action is required after applying restraints?
A) Document the type of restraint and patient behavior every hour.
B) Remove the restraints only when the patient is asleep.
C) Keep the restraints on continuously for 24 hours.
D) Tie the restraints tightly to the bed frame.
Answer: A
Rationale: Restraints require frequent monitoring and documentation (at least every 1–2
hours) of the restraint type, patient condition, skin integrity, and need for continued use.
They must be released periodically and tied to the bed frame (not side rails) to avoid
injury.
AND OPPORTUNITIES 6TH EDITION – HUSTON
COMPLETE TEST BANK – QUESTIONS
Question 1:
A nurse is explaining to a patient the difference between a practical nurse (LPN/LVN)
and a registered nurse (RN). Which statement is accurate?
A) LPNs have a broader scope of practice than RNs.
B) RNs are licensed to practice independently, while LPNs practice under supervision.
C) LPNs must hold a master's degree.
D) RNs cannot delegate tasks to LPNs.
Answer: B
Rationale: RNs have an independent scope of practice and are licensed to assess, plan,
implement, and evaluate care. LPNs work under the supervision of an RN or physician and
have a more limited scope. LPNs do not need a master's degree, and RNs can delegate
appropriate tasks to LPNs.
Question 2:
A nurse is discussing the history of nursing education. Which event significantly
advanced nursing as a profession?
A) The establishment of the first nursing school by Florence Nightingale at St. Thomas'
Hospital.
B) The invention of the stethoscope.
C) The discovery of penicillin.
D) The first open-heart surgery.
Answer: A
Rationale: Florence Nightingale founded the first secular nursing school at St. Thomas'
,Hospital in London in 1860, establishing formal education and professional standards for
nursing. The other options are medical or technological advances, not educational
milestones.
Question 3:
A nurse is caring for a patient who is a member of a federally recognized tribe. Which
federal program provides healthcare services to this patient?
A) Medicare.
B) Medicaid.
C) Indian Health Service (IHS).
D) TRICARE.
Answer: C
Rationale: The Indian Health Service (IHS) is a federal program that provides healthcare to
members of federally recognized Native American and Alaska Native tribes. Medicare
serves elderly, Medicaid serves low-income, and TRICARE serves military personnel.
Question 4:
A nurse is explaining the concept of "moral distress" to a new graduate. Which situation
best exemplifies moral distress?
A) Feeling tired after a long shift.
B) Knowing the right action to take but being unable to do it due to institutional
constraints.
C) Disagreeing with a physician's treatment plan.
D) Being unsure of how to perform a procedure.
Answer: B
Rationale: Moral distress occurs when a nurse knows the ethically correct action but is
constrained by organizational policies, hierarchy, or other barriers from acting on it. It is
distinct from fatigue, disagreement, or lack of skill.
,Question 5:
A nurse is documenting care in the medical record. Which entry is legally defensible?
A) "Patient seems agitated."
B) "Patient is faking pain."
C) "Patient complained of 8/10 chest pain, grimacing, diaphoretic."
D) "Patient is non-compliant."
Answer: C
Rationale: Objective, factual, and specific documentation—including direct quotes and
observable signs—is legally defensible. Subjective opinions, judgments, and labels like
"faking" or "non-compliant" are inappropriate and potentially defamatory.
Question 6:
A nurse manager is developing a disaster preparedness plan. Which phase of disaster
management involves activities to reduce the impact of a disaster?
A) Mitigation.
B) Preparedness.
C) Response.
D) Recovery.
Answer: A
Rationale: Mitigation includes actions taken to reduce or eliminate the long-term risk and
impact of hazards (e.g., building codes, flood barriers). Preparedness plans for response,
response is the immediate action, and recovery focuses on restoration.
Question 7:
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The nurse
understands that a DNR order means:
A) The patient should receive no medical treatment at all.
B) No cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) will be attempted if the patient's heart stops.
C) The patient is not to receive any pain medication.
D) The patient must be discharged immediately.
, Answer: B
Rationale: A DNR order specifically directs that CPR should not be initiated in the event of
cardiac or respiratory arrest. It does not affect other treatments, pain management, or
discharge status.
Question 8:
A nurse is teaching a patient about advance directives. The patient asks, "What is a living
will?" The nurse responds:
A) A legal document that appoints someone to make healthcare decisions for you.
B) A legal document that specifies your wishes for medical treatment if you become
incapacitated.
C) A financial document that distributes your assets.
D) A document that requires you to accept all treatments.
Answer: B
Rationale: A living will is a written legal document that outlines a person's preferences for
medical treatments (e.g., life support, tube feeding) in the event they become unable to
communicate. A healthcare proxy appoints a surrogate, not a living will.
Question 9:
A nurse is caring for a patient who is confused and attempting to pull out an IV line. The
nurse applies soft wrist restraints. Which action is required after applying restraints?
A) Document the type of restraint and patient behavior every hour.
B) Remove the restraints only when the patient is asleep.
C) Keep the restraints on continuously for 24 hours.
D) Tie the restraints tightly to the bed frame.
Answer: A
Rationale: Restraints require frequent monitoring and documentation (at least every 1–2
hours) of the restraint type, patient condition, skin integrity, and need for continued use.
They must be released periodically and tied to the bed frame (not side rails) to avoid
injury.
