1|Page
NSG 2610 Exam 2 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded
A+
1. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is placed
on mechanical ventilation. Which ventilator setting adjustment is most
appropriate to manage refractory hypoxemia?
A. Increase the FiO2 to 1.0 and apply positive end-expiratory pressure
(PEEP)
B. Decrease the tidal volume to 4 mL/kg of ideal body weight
C. Increase the respiratory rate to 40 breaths per minute
D. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation exclusively
Answer: A
Explanation: In ARDS, refractory hypoxemia is primarily managed by
increasing the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) and applying PEEP to
recruit alveolar units and prevent their collapse. While low tidal volume
ventilation (6 mL/kg) is a cornerstone of lung-protective strategies, the
immediate intervention for hypoxemia is optimizing oxygenation with
higher FiO2 and PEEP. Increasing the respiratory rate may lead to auto-
PEEP and barotrauma, and switching to pressure-controlled ventilation
does not directly correct the underlying shunt physiology.
,2|Page
2. The nurse is caring for a patient with status asthmaticus. Which
arterial blood gas (ABG) finding is most consistent with the early phase
of this condition?
A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
B. pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3 26 mEq/L
C. pH 7.38, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
D. pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
Answer: A
Explanation: In the early stages of status asthmaticus, the patient
hyperventilates in response to hypoxemia and airway obstruction,
leading to respiratory alkalosis. The ABG shows an elevated pH and
decreased PaCO2 due to increased alveolar ventilation. As the condition
worsens and respiratory muscle fatigue ensues, the PaCO2 rises,
indicating impending respiratory failure; a normal or rising PaCO2 in
this context is a sign of clinical deterioration, not improvement.
3. A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) is prescribed a low-flow oxygen device. Which rationale best
supports this prescription?
A. High-flow oxygen may suppress the hypoxic drive in patients with
COPD
B. Low-flow oxygen delivers a precise concentration of oxygen
C. High-flow oxygen is more expensive and requires specialized
equipment
,3|Page
D. Low-flow oxygen promotes the elimination of carbon dioxide directly
Answer: A
Explanation: In some patients with COPD, particularly those with
chronic hypercapnia, the primary respiratory drive is hypoxemia rather
than hypercapnia. Administering high concentrations of oxygen can
lead to a decrease in the hypoxic drive, causing hypoventilation,
worsening hypercapnia, and respiratory acidosis. Low-flow oxygen
allows for controlled titration to maintain adequate oxygenation
without eliminating this critical respiratory stimulus.
4. The nurse is assessing a patient receiving continuous enteral
nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Gastric residual volume of 150 mL
B. Blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL
C. New onset of coughing during feeding
D. Patient report of mild abdominal cramping
Answer: C
Explanation: Coughing during enteral feeding suggests possible
aspiration of feeding contents into the airway, which is a serious
complication that can lead to aspiration pneumonia. This finding
requires immediate intervention, including stopping the feeding,
positioning the patient upright, and assessing respiratory status. A
gastric residual of 150 mL is not necessarily concerning in itself; blood
glucose of 140 mg/dL is mildly elevated but not emergent; mild
abdominal cramping is common.
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5. A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a serum potassium level
of 6.8 mEq/L. Which electrocardiogram (ECG) change is most
characteristic of this electrolyte imbalance?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Prolonged PR interval
C. ST segment depression
D. U waves
Answer: A
Explanation: Hyperkalemia, defined as serum potassium >5.0 mEq/L,
produces characteristic ECG changes, with tall, peaked, narrow-based T
waves being one of the earliest and most specific findings. As
hyperkalemia worsens, the PR interval prolongs, the QRS complex
widens, and ultimately a sine wave pattern or ventricular fibrillation
may ensue. U waves are more characteristic of hypokalemia, while ST
segment depression is non-specific.
6. A patient is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor most closely to assess for an adverse
effect of this medication?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
Answer: B
NSG 2610 Exam 2 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS
WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded
A+
1. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is placed
on mechanical ventilation. Which ventilator setting adjustment is most
appropriate to manage refractory hypoxemia?
A. Increase the FiO2 to 1.0 and apply positive end-expiratory pressure
(PEEP)
B. Decrease the tidal volume to 4 mL/kg of ideal body weight
C. Increase the respiratory rate to 40 breaths per minute
D. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation exclusively
Answer: A
Explanation: In ARDS, refractory hypoxemia is primarily managed by
increasing the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) and applying PEEP to
recruit alveolar units and prevent their collapse. While low tidal volume
ventilation (6 mL/kg) is a cornerstone of lung-protective strategies, the
immediate intervention for hypoxemia is optimizing oxygenation with
higher FiO2 and PEEP. Increasing the respiratory rate may lead to auto-
PEEP and barotrauma, and switching to pressure-controlled ventilation
does not directly correct the underlying shunt physiology.
,2|Page
2. The nurse is caring for a patient with status asthmaticus. Which
arterial blood gas (ABG) finding is most consistent with the early phase
of this condition?
A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
B. pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3 26 mEq/L
C. pH 7.38, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
D. pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L
Answer: A
Explanation: In the early stages of status asthmaticus, the patient
hyperventilates in response to hypoxemia and airway obstruction,
leading to respiratory alkalosis. The ABG shows an elevated pH and
decreased PaCO2 due to increased alveolar ventilation. As the condition
worsens and respiratory muscle fatigue ensues, the PaCO2 rises,
indicating impending respiratory failure; a normal or rising PaCO2 in
this context is a sign of clinical deterioration, not improvement.
3. A patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) is prescribed a low-flow oxygen device. Which rationale best
supports this prescription?
A. High-flow oxygen may suppress the hypoxic drive in patients with
COPD
B. Low-flow oxygen delivers a precise concentration of oxygen
C. High-flow oxygen is more expensive and requires specialized
equipment
,3|Page
D. Low-flow oxygen promotes the elimination of carbon dioxide directly
Answer: A
Explanation: In some patients with COPD, particularly those with
chronic hypercapnia, the primary respiratory drive is hypoxemia rather
than hypercapnia. Administering high concentrations of oxygen can
lead to a decrease in the hypoxic drive, causing hypoventilation,
worsening hypercapnia, and respiratory acidosis. Low-flow oxygen
allows for controlled titration to maintain adequate oxygenation
without eliminating this critical respiratory stimulus.
4. The nurse is assessing a patient receiving continuous enteral
nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Gastric residual volume of 150 mL
B. Blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL
C. New onset of coughing during feeding
D. Patient report of mild abdominal cramping
Answer: C
Explanation: Coughing during enteral feeding suggests possible
aspiration of feeding contents into the airway, which is a serious
complication that can lead to aspiration pneumonia. This finding
requires immediate intervention, including stopping the feeding,
positioning the patient upright, and assessing respiratory status. A
gastric residual of 150 mL is not necessarily concerning in itself; blood
glucose of 140 mg/dL is mildly elevated but not emergent; mild
abdominal cramping is common.
, 4|Page
5. A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a serum potassium level
of 6.8 mEq/L. Which electrocardiogram (ECG) change is most
characteristic of this electrolyte imbalance?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Prolonged PR interval
C. ST segment depression
D. U waves
Answer: A
Explanation: Hyperkalemia, defined as serum potassium >5.0 mEq/L,
produces characteristic ECG changes, with tall, peaked, narrow-based T
waves being one of the earliest and most specific findings. As
hyperkalemia worsens, the PR interval prolongs, the QRS complex
widens, and ultimately a sine wave pattern or ventricular fibrillation
may ensue. U waves are more characteristic of hypokalemia, while ST
segment depression is non-specific.
6. A patient is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor most closely to assess for an adverse
effect of this medication?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
Answer: B
