NUR 2755 / NUR2755 Exam 2 - Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen University | 2026-2027
NUR 2755 / NUR2755 Exam 2
Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4
2026 | 2027 Latest Edition | 100% Correct
Aligned with Rasmussen University Curriculum Standards
Sectio
Content Area Questions
n
1 Shock States and Hemodynamic Management Q1 - Q25
2 Burn Injuries and Wound Care Q26 - Q50
3 Respiratory Disorders and Ventilation Q51 - Q65
4 Perioperative and Postoperative Care Q66 - Q85
5 Integrated Clinical Scenarios Q86 - Q100
Cognitive Level Distribution: 25% Recall | 55% Application | 20% Analysis
Page 1
,NUR 2755 / NUR2755 Exam 2 - Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen University | 2026-2027
Section 1: Shock States and Hemodynamic Management
Q1: A 68-year-old patient with a known urinary tract infection develops a temperature of 103.2°F (39.6°C), heart rate 128
bpm, blood pressure 86/50 mmHg, and altered mental status. The nurse identifies that this patient is experiencing which
type of shock?
A. A. Cardiogenic shock
B. B. Distributive/septic shock
C. C. Hypovolemic shock
D. D. Obstructive shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient presents with classic signs of septic shock, a subtype of distributive shock, including fever, tachycardia,
hypotension, and altered mental status arising from a confirmed infection source. Distributive shock is characterized by widespread
vasodilation and maldistribution of blood flow, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion despite normal or increased cardiac output early in
the course.
Q2: A patient's blood pressure reading is 108/64 mmHg. Using the formula MAP = (SBP + 2 × DBP) / 3, what is the mean
arterial pressure (MAP)?
A. A. 78.7 mmHg
B. B. 86.0 mmHg
C. C. 72.0 mmHg
D. D. 91.3 mmHg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: MAP = (108 + 2 × 64) / 3 = (108 + 128) / 3 = = 78.7 mmHg. A MAP of ≥ 65 mmHg is considered the minimum
necessary to sustain adequate perfusion of vital organs such as the kidneys and brain.
Q3: A 34-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. Blood pressure is 104/68
mmHg, heart rate 114 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, and the skin is pale and cool. The patient is anxious but alert
and oriented. The nurse identifies that the patient is in which stage of shock?
A. A. Initial stage
B. B. Compensatory stage
C. C. Progressive stage
D. D. Refractory stage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the initial stage of shock, blood pressure is typically maintained within normal limits because compensatory mechanisms
such as sympathetic nervous system activation have not yet been fully engaged. The patient's tachycardia, pale cool skin, and anxiety
indicate early compensatory responses, but the blood pressure remains stable, placing the patient in the initial stage before significant
hypotension develops.
Q4: A 50-year-old patient presents with massive upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient has pale, clammy skin; a
thready pulse of 130 bpm; blood pressure 78/48 mmHg; and urine output of 10 mL/hr. Which intervention should the nurse
anticipate implementing first?
A. A. Administration of a loop diuretic to reduce fluid overload
B. B. Rapid infusion of isotonic crystalloids via large-bore IV access
C. C. Administration of a beta-blocker to reduce heart rate
D. D. Insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter for hemodynamic monitoring
Page 2
, NUR 2755 / NUR2755 Exam 2 - Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen University | 2026-2027
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient is in hypovolemic shock due to significant blood loss, as evidenced by hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and
signs of poor perfusion. The first priority is rapid fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystalloids (such as normal saline or lactated Ringer's)
through large-bore intravenous access to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
Q5: Which set of clinical findings best reflects sympathetic nervous system (SNS) compensation during the early stages of
shock?
A. A. Bradycardia, warm dry skin, and increased urine output
B. B. Hypotension, flushed skin, and decreased level of consciousness
C. C. Tachycardia, diaphoresis, and peripheral vasoconstriction
D. D. Bradypnea, bounding pulses, and muscle weakness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sympathetic nervous system activation causes release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, leading to tachycardia, diaphoresis,
and peripheral vasoconstriction as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output and redirect blood flow to vital organs. These
compensatory mechanisms help sustain blood pressure and perfusion during the initial and compensatory stages of shock.
Q6: A 25-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department following a diving accident with a suspected cervical
spinal cord injury at C6. The patient's blood pressure is 84/50 mmHg, heart rate 52 bpm, and the skin is warm and dry. The
nurse recognizes these findings are consistent with which type of shock?
A. A. Neurogenic shock
B. B. Cardiogenic shock
C. C. Hypovolemic shock
D. D. Anaphylactic shock
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results from loss of sympathetic tone below the level of spinal cord injury, causing unopposed
parasympathetic activity. This leads to hypotension, bradycardia (due to unopposed vagal stimulation), and warm, dry skin (due to loss of
vasoconstriction), which distinguishes it from other forms of shock that typically present with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia.
Q7: A 30-year-old patient received intravenous penicillin and within minutes developed urticaria, angioedema of the face
and throat, stridor, blood pressure 72/40 mmHg, and a heart rate of 132 bpm. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A. A. Administering oral diphenhydramine
B. B. Applying warm blankets to prevent hypothermia
C. C. Initiating high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
D. D. Administering intramuscular epinephrine immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening allergic reaction requiring immediate administration of intramuscular epinephrine as
the first-line treatment. Epinephrine counteracts the effects of histamine by causing vasoconstriction, bronchodilation, and increased
cardiac output, addressing both the airway compromise and cardiovascular collapse simultaneously.
Q8: A 72-year-old patient 3 days post-myocardial infarction develops crackles bilaterally, jugular venous distension, blood
pressure 82/56 mmHg, and a cardiac index of 1.8 L/min/m². Which finding is most consistent with cardiogenic shock?
A. A. Elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) greater than 18 mmHg
B. B. Decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
C. C. Low central venous pressure (CVP) of 2 mmHg
D. D. Elevated cardiac output greater than 8 L/min
Page 3
NUR 2755 / NUR2755 Exam 2
Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4
2026 | 2027 Latest Edition | 100% Correct
Aligned with Rasmussen University Curriculum Standards
Sectio
Content Area Questions
n
1 Shock States and Hemodynamic Management Q1 - Q25
2 Burn Injuries and Wound Care Q26 - Q50
3 Respiratory Disorders and Ventilation Q51 - Q65
4 Perioperative and Postoperative Care Q66 - Q85
5 Integrated Clinical Scenarios Q86 - Q100
Cognitive Level Distribution: 25% Recall | 55% Application | 20% Analysis
Page 1
,NUR 2755 / NUR2755 Exam 2 - Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen University | 2026-2027
Section 1: Shock States and Hemodynamic Management
Q1: A 68-year-old patient with a known urinary tract infection develops a temperature of 103.2°F (39.6°C), heart rate 128
bpm, blood pressure 86/50 mmHg, and altered mental status. The nurse identifies that this patient is experiencing which
type of shock?
A. A. Cardiogenic shock
B. B. Distributive/septic shock
C. C. Hypovolemic shock
D. D. Obstructive shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient presents with classic signs of septic shock, a subtype of distributive shock, including fever, tachycardia,
hypotension, and altered mental status arising from a confirmed infection source. Distributive shock is characterized by widespread
vasodilation and maldistribution of blood flow, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion despite normal or increased cardiac output early in
the course.
Q2: A patient's blood pressure reading is 108/64 mmHg. Using the formula MAP = (SBP + 2 × DBP) / 3, what is the mean
arterial pressure (MAP)?
A. A. 78.7 mmHg
B. B. 86.0 mmHg
C. C. 72.0 mmHg
D. D. 91.3 mmHg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: MAP = (108 + 2 × 64) / 3 = (108 + 128) / 3 = = 78.7 mmHg. A MAP of ≥ 65 mmHg is considered the minimum
necessary to sustain adequate perfusion of vital organs such as the kidneys and brain.
Q3: A 34-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. Blood pressure is 104/68
mmHg, heart rate 114 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, and the skin is pale and cool. The patient is anxious but alert
and oriented. The nurse identifies that the patient is in which stage of shock?
A. A. Initial stage
B. B. Compensatory stage
C. C. Progressive stage
D. D. Refractory stage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the initial stage of shock, blood pressure is typically maintained within normal limits because compensatory mechanisms
such as sympathetic nervous system activation have not yet been fully engaged. The patient's tachycardia, pale cool skin, and anxiety
indicate early compensatory responses, but the blood pressure remains stable, placing the patient in the initial stage before significant
hypotension develops.
Q4: A 50-year-old patient presents with massive upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient has pale, clammy skin; a
thready pulse of 130 bpm; blood pressure 78/48 mmHg; and urine output of 10 mL/hr. Which intervention should the nurse
anticipate implementing first?
A. A. Administration of a loop diuretic to reduce fluid overload
B. B. Rapid infusion of isotonic crystalloids via large-bore IV access
C. C. Administration of a beta-blocker to reduce heart rate
D. D. Insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter for hemodynamic monitoring
Page 2
, NUR 2755 / NUR2755 Exam 2 - Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 Rasmussen University | 2026-2027
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient is in hypovolemic shock due to significant blood loss, as evidenced by hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and
signs of poor perfusion. The first priority is rapid fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystalloids (such as normal saline or lactated Ringer's)
through large-bore intravenous access to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
Q5: Which set of clinical findings best reflects sympathetic nervous system (SNS) compensation during the early stages of
shock?
A. A. Bradycardia, warm dry skin, and increased urine output
B. B. Hypotension, flushed skin, and decreased level of consciousness
C. C. Tachycardia, diaphoresis, and peripheral vasoconstriction
D. D. Bradypnea, bounding pulses, and muscle weakness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sympathetic nervous system activation causes release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, leading to tachycardia, diaphoresis,
and peripheral vasoconstriction as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output and redirect blood flow to vital organs. These
compensatory mechanisms help sustain blood pressure and perfusion during the initial and compensatory stages of shock.
Q6: A 25-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department following a diving accident with a suspected cervical
spinal cord injury at C6. The patient's blood pressure is 84/50 mmHg, heart rate 52 bpm, and the skin is warm and dry. The
nurse recognizes these findings are consistent with which type of shock?
A. A. Neurogenic shock
B. B. Cardiogenic shock
C. C. Hypovolemic shock
D. D. Anaphylactic shock
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results from loss of sympathetic tone below the level of spinal cord injury, causing unopposed
parasympathetic activity. This leads to hypotension, bradycardia (due to unopposed vagal stimulation), and warm, dry skin (due to loss of
vasoconstriction), which distinguishes it from other forms of shock that typically present with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia.
Q7: A 30-year-old patient received intravenous penicillin and within minutes developed urticaria, angioedema of the face
and throat, stridor, blood pressure 72/40 mmHg, and a heart rate of 132 bpm. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A. A. Administering oral diphenhydramine
B. B. Applying warm blankets to prevent hypothermia
C. C. Initiating high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
D. D. Administering intramuscular epinephrine immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening allergic reaction requiring immediate administration of intramuscular epinephrine as
the first-line treatment. Epinephrine counteracts the effects of histamine by causing vasoconstriction, bronchodilation, and increased
cardiac output, addressing both the airway compromise and cardiovascular collapse simultaneously.
Q8: A 72-year-old patient 3 days post-myocardial infarction develops crackles bilaterally, jugular venous distension, blood
pressure 82/56 mmHg, and a cardiac index of 1.8 L/min/m². Which finding is most consistent with cardiogenic shock?
A. A. Elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) greater than 18 mmHg
B. B. Decreased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
C. C. Low central venous pressure (CVP) of 2 mmHg
D. D. Elevated cardiac output greater than 8 L/min
Page 3
