NR 601 Midterm Exam – Primary Care of
the Maturing and Aged Family Practicum
Chamberlain Questions and Ansẉers with
rationales 2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Which theory of aging proposes that the accumulation of random
cellular damage over time leads to the physiological decline
associated with aging?
A) Programmed theory
B) Immunochemical theory
C) Free radical theory
D) Wear and tear theory
Answer: D
Rationale: The wear and tear theory compares the human body to a
machine that eventually wears out from repeated use and abuse
over time. The free radical theory (C) specifically focuses on damage
caused by unstable oxygen molecules, while the programmed
theory (A) suggests aging is genetically predetermined.
A 72-year-old patient presents with a new onset of atrial fibrillation.
According to the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system, which factor would
assign 2 points to his score?
A) Diabetes
B) Age 65-74
C) Age 75 or older
D) Female sex
Answer: C
Rationale: In the CHA2DS2-VASc score, age 75 or older is assigned 2
points. Age 65-74 (B), diabetes (A), and female sex (D) are each
assigned 1 point.
,When assessing an older adult's functional status, which tool is most
appropriate for evaluating Instrumental Activities of Daily Living
(IADLs)?
A) Katz Index of Independence
B) Lawton-Brody IADL Scale
C) Braden Scale
D) Morse Fall Scale
Answer: B
Rationale: The Lawton-Brody IADL Scale assesses complex tasks
such as managing finances, using the telephone, shopping, and
meal preparation. The Katz Index (A) evaluates basic ADLs (bathing,
dressing, toileting, etc.). The Braden Scale (C) is for pressure ulcer
risk, and the Morse Fall Scale (D) is for fall risk.
A 68-year-old female patient asks about screening for osteoporosis.
According to the USPSTF, at what age should routine screening for
osteoporosis begin in women with no increased risk factors?
A) 50
B) 60
C) 65
D) 70
Answer: C
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for osteoporosis with
dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) in women aged 65 years
and older.
What is the primary reason that older adults experience a higher
incidence of adverse drug reactions (ADRs)?
A) They consume more over-the-counter medications than younger
adults.
B) Age-related pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic changes alter
drug metabolism and response.
C) They have a higher percentage of body water, leading to rapid
drug dilution.
, D) Their liver enzymes become hyperactive, leading to rapid drug
breakdown.
Answer: B
Rationale: Aging results in decreased renal clearance, altered
hepatic metabolism (decreased first-pass effect), and changes in
volume of distribution (increased body fat, decreased lean mass and
total body water). These pharmacokinetic changes increase the risk
of toxicity and ADRs. Body water decreases (C), and liver enzymes
generally become less active, not hyperactive (D).
Which of the following is considered a "high-risk" medication in the
elderly according to the AGS Beers Criteria and should generally be
avoided for treating insomnia?
A) Trazodone
B) Melatonin
C) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D) Zolpidem (Ambien)
Answer: C
Rationale: Diphenhydramine is a highly anticholinergic first-
generation antihistamine. It is strongly discouraged in the elderly
due to its side effects: confusion, dry mouth, constipation, urinary
retention, and blurred vision. While zolpidem (D) is also on the Beers
list, diphenhydramine is universally recognized as particularly
dangerous for elderly cognition.
An 80-year-old patient is noted to have a systolic blood pressure of
158 mmHg and a diastolic blood pressure of 72 mmHg. This
presentation is most characteristic of which of the following?
A) Secondary hypertension
B) Isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)
C) White coat hypertension
D) Pheochromocytoma
Answer: B
the Maturing and Aged Family Practicum
Chamberlain Questions and Ansẉers with
rationales 2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
Which theory of aging proposes that the accumulation of random
cellular damage over time leads to the physiological decline
associated with aging?
A) Programmed theory
B) Immunochemical theory
C) Free radical theory
D) Wear and tear theory
Answer: D
Rationale: The wear and tear theory compares the human body to a
machine that eventually wears out from repeated use and abuse
over time. The free radical theory (C) specifically focuses on damage
caused by unstable oxygen molecules, while the programmed
theory (A) suggests aging is genetically predetermined.
A 72-year-old patient presents with a new onset of atrial fibrillation.
According to the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system, which factor would
assign 2 points to his score?
A) Diabetes
B) Age 65-74
C) Age 75 or older
D) Female sex
Answer: C
Rationale: In the CHA2DS2-VASc score, age 75 or older is assigned 2
points. Age 65-74 (B), diabetes (A), and female sex (D) are each
assigned 1 point.
,When assessing an older adult's functional status, which tool is most
appropriate for evaluating Instrumental Activities of Daily Living
(IADLs)?
A) Katz Index of Independence
B) Lawton-Brody IADL Scale
C) Braden Scale
D) Morse Fall Scale
Answer: B
Rationale: The Lawton-Brody IADL Scale assesses complex tasks
such as managing finances, using the telephone, shopping, and
meal preparation. The Katz Index (A) evaluates basic ADLs (bathing,
dressing, toileting, etc.). The Braden Scale (C) is for pressure ulcer
risk, and the Morse Fall Scale (D) is for fall risk.
A 68-year-old female patient asks about screening for osteoporosis.
According to the USPSTF, at what age should routine screening for
osteoporosis begin in women with no increased risk factors?
A) 50
B) 60
C) 65
D) 70
Answer: C
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for osteoporosis with
dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) in women aged 65 years
and older.
What is the primary reason that older adults experience a higher
incidence of adverse drug reactions (ADRs)?
A) They consume more over-the-counter medications than younger
adults.
B) Age-related pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic changes alter
drug metabolism and response.
C) They have a higher percentage of body water, leading to rapid
drug dilution.
, D) Their liver enzymes become hyperactive, leading to rapid drug
breakdown.
Answer: B
Rationale: Aging results in decreased renal clearance, altered
hepatic metabolism (decreased first-pass effect), and changes in
volume of distribution (increased body fat, decreased lean mass and
total body water). These pharmacokinetic changes increase the risk
of toxicity and ADRs. Body water decreases (C), and liver enzymes
generally become less active, not hyperactive (D).
Which of the following is considered a "high-risk" medication in the
elderly according to the AGS Beers Criteria and should generally be
avoided for treating insomnia?
A) Trazodone
B) Melatonin
C) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D) Zolpidem (Ambien)
Answer: C
Rationale: Diphenhydramine is a highly anticholinergic first-
generation antihistamine. It is strongly discouraged in the elderly
due to its side effects: confusion, dry mouth, constipation, urinary
retention, and blurred vision. While zolpidem (D) is also on the Beers
list, diphenhydramine is universally recognized as particularly
dangerous for elderly cognition.
An 80-year-old patient is noted to have a systolic blood pressure of
158 mmHg and a diastolic blood pressure of 72 mmHg. This
presentation is most characteristic of which of the following?
A) Secondary hypertension
B) Isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)
C) White coat hypertension
D) Pheochromocytoma
Answer: B
