Midterm Exam Q & A
Differential Diagnosis & Primary Care Practicum
Latest 2026/2027 Curriculum Edition
Chamberlain College of Nursing
Total Questions Format Cognitive Levels
100 Multiple Choice (A-D) 25% Recall | 55% Application | 20% Analysis
Comprehensive Q&A with Verified Answers and Clinical Rationales
,NR511 Midterm Exam Q&A | Differential Diagnosis & Primary Care Practicum | Chamberlain College of Nursing
Section 1: Clinical Reasoning, Diagnostic Process, and Health Maintenance
Q1: A 55-year-old patient presents with fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and constipation. The nurse
practitioner suspects hypothyroidism. Which diagnostic test should be ordered first?
A. Free T4 only
B. TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) [CORRECT]
C. Thyroid ultrasound
D. Radioactive iodine uptake scan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: TSH is the most sensitive and cost-effective first-line screening test for thyroid dysfunction. An elevated TSH is the
earliest indicator of primary hypothyroidism. Free T4 is often ordered alongside TSH but is not the first test in isolation. Thyroid
ultrasound evaluates structure, not function. Radioactive iodine uptake is for hyperthyroidism evaluation, not hypothyroidism
screening.
Q2: Which cognitive bias occurs when a clinician anchors on initial diagnostic impressions and fails to adjust
as new data emerges?
A. Confirmation bias
B. Availability heuristic
C. Anchoring bias [CORRECT]
D. Premature closure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Anchoring bias describes the tendency to fixate on initial data or impressions and insufficiently adjust hypotheses when
additional information becomes available. Confirmation bias involves seeking only data that supports the initial hypothesis. The
availability heuristic occurs when recent or memorable cases disproportionately influence reasoning. Premature closure refers to
accepting a diagnosis before sufficient data has been gathered.
Q3: According to the USPSTF 2026 guidelines, which patient should be screened for lung cancer with
low-dose CT?
A. A 45-year-old nonsmoker with a family history of lung cancer
B. A 55-year-old with a 20 pack-year smoking history who currently smokes [CORRECT]
C. A 60-year-old who quit smoking 5 years ago with a 10 pack-year history
D. A 50-year-old with a 15 pack-year history who quit 10 years ago
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPSTF recommends annual low-dose CT screening for adults aged 50 to 80 years who have at least a 20 pack-year
smoking history and currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years. The 55-year-old with a 20 pack-year history who
currently smokes meets all criteria. The 45-year-old does not meet age or smoking criteria. The 60-year-old has only 10 pack-years.
The 50-year-old has only 15 pack-years and quit more than 15 years ago.
Q4: A 48-year-old female asks about mammography screening. Based on USPSTF Grade B
recommendations, what should the nurse practitioner advise?
A. Begin screening at age 40 with annual mammography
B. Begin screening at age 50 with biennial mammography, with shared decision-making for ages 40-49
[CORRECT]
C. Begin screening at age 45 with annual mammography
D. Screening is not recommended until age 55
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, NR511 Midterm Exam Q&A | Differential Diagnosis & Primary Care Practicum | Chamberlain College of Nursing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPSTF Grade B recommendation for breast cancer screening is biennial mammography for women aged 50-74 years,
with shared decision-making for women aged 40-49 years about when to begin screening. Beginning at 40 with annual
mammography is not the USPSTF recommendation. Screening at 45 annually or waiting until 55 are both inconsistent with current
guidelines.
Q5: A nurse practitioner is documenting a patient encounter using the SOAP format. Under which section
would the chief complaint and history of present illness be documented?
A. Objective
B. Assessment
C. Plan
D. Subjective [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The SOAP note organizes documentation into four sections: Subjective (S) includes the chief complaint, history of
present illness, and patient-reported symptoms. Objective (O) contains physical examination findings, vital signs, and diagnostic
results. Assessment (A) includes the differential diagnosis and clinical reasoning. Plan (P) outlines treatment, referrals, and
follow-up.
Q6: A 62-year-old male presents with a new skin lesion that is asymmetric with irregular borders, varying
colors of brown and black, and a diameter of 7 mm. Which finding is most concerning for melanoma?
A. Diameter greater than 5 mm only
B. Asymmetry combined with border irregularity and color variation [CORRECT]
C. The presence of a single dark color throughout
D. A well-defined border with uniform texture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ABCDE criteria for melanoma include Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter greater than 6
mm, and Evolving characteristics. The combination of asymmetry, irregular borders, and color variation is most concerning. While
diameter greater than 6 mm is one criterion, it is not the most concerning finding alone. Uniform color and well-defined borders
suggest a benign lesion.
Q7: When applying Bayesian reasoning to diagnostic testing, which concept describes the probability that a
patient has the disease given a positive test result?
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive predictive value [CORRECT]
D. Negative predictive value
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Positive predictive value (PPV) represents the probability that a patient truly has the disease when the test result is
positive. Sensitivity measures the proportion of patients with disease who test positive. Specificity measures the proportion without
disease who test negative. Negative predictive value is the probability that a patient does not have the disease given a negative test
result. PPV depends on test characteristics and disease prevalence.
Q8: A 42-year-old patient with no risk factors presents for a routine health maintenance visit. According to
USPSTF guidelines, colorectal cancer screening should begin at what age?
A. Age 40
B. Age 45 [CORRECT]
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