NSG 533
NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Test 1
Week 4 With 100% Verified Answers
Which of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because of the
long half-life of its potent active metabolite?
A. Escitalopram
B. Fluvoxamine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline - ANSWER C
Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within approximately 1 week
of starting treatment?
A. Depressed mood
B. Suicidal thoughts
C. Anhedonia
D. Sleep - ANSWER D
Of the following combinations of medications, which one would you want to avoid?
A. Fluoxetine-lithium
B. Fluoxetine-phenelzine
C. Citalopram-valproic acid
D. Citalopram-aripiprazole - ANSWER B
A 26-year-old man with a history of depression has been taking sertraline 200 mg/day for 12
weeks with no response. The patient has no other complications. The physician asks for your
recommendation. The most reasonable recommendation would be to:
A. Increase sertraline
B. Add fluoxetine
C. Switch to amitriptyline
D. Change to venlafaxine
E. Decrease sertraline - ANSWER D
Which of the following is a dangerous combination?
A. MAOI-lorazepam
B. MAOI-acetaminophen
C. MAOI-meperidine
D. MAOI-ziprasidone - ANSWER C
NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Test 1 Week 4 With 100% Verified Answers
, NSG 533
A 23-year-old married white woman comes to the outpatient psychiatric clinic complaining
of decreased sleep, decreased appetite, decreased concentration, depressed mood,
thoughts of death, and lack of interest in activities for 6 weeks' duration. She has no
history of psychiatric illness and takes no medications except for Ortho-Tri Cyclen Lo
daily. Based upon the patients symptoms, choose the best medication to treat this patient.
A. Nefazodone 100 mg po twice daily
B. Paroxetine 20 mg po daily
C. St. John's wort 300 mg po three times daily
D. Amitriptyline 25 mg at bedtime - ANSWER B
A 36-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for a severe methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus diabetic foot infection and is started on linezolid 600 mg IV every 12 hours. His
medication profile includes paroxetine 40 mg every morning, trazodone 100 mg at bedtime as
needed for sleep, and metformin 1000 mg po twice daily. After 3 days on these medications,
the patient becomes agitated, confused, and diaphoretic and develops myoclonic jerks.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Overdose of metformin
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Serotonin syndrome - ANSWER D
A 46-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric outpatient clinic for follow-up treatment of
major depression. She is currently on paroxetine 10 mg at bedtime, which she started taking 2
months ago when admitted to the psychiatric hospital for suicidal ideation. During the interview,
she says that she does not think the medication is working because she is just as depressed as
she was before taking the medication and has recently started drinking eight to 10 beers daily to
alleviate the depression. Before this episode, she was sober for 4 years. Which of the following
treatment strategies would be the appropriate choice for this patient?
A. Stop the paroxetine and start nefazodone 100 mg po twice daily
B. Increase the dose of paroxetine to 20 mg po at bedtime
C. Stop the paroxetine and start duloxetine 20 mg/day
D. Continue the paroxetine at them same dose for a longer period of time to evaluate whether
she will respond or not - ANSWER B
Which of the following is a flaw in the monoamine hypothesis of depression?
A. Concentrations of neurotransmitters are reduced in the synaptic cleft
B. A switch to a different class of antidepressants does not improve response
C. Antidepressant response is associated with a therapeutic level of the medication
D. Antidepressant effects on neurotransmitters do not temporally correspond to response. -
ANSWER D
NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Test 1 Week 4 With 100% Verified Answers
NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Test 1
Week 4 With 100% Verified Answers
Which of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because of the
long half-life of its potent active metabolite?
A. Escitalopram
B. Fluvoxamine
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline - ANSWER C
Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within approximately 1 week
of starting treatment?
A. Depressed mood
B. Suicidal thoughts
C. Anhedonia
D. Sleep - ANSWER D
Of the following combinations of medications, which one would you want to avoid?
A. Fluoxetine-lithium
B. Fluoxetine-phenelzine
C. Citalopram-valproic acid
D. Citalopram-aripiprazole - ANSWER B
A 26-year-old man with a history of depression has been taking sertraline 200 mg/day for 12
weeks with no response. The patient has no other complications. The physician asks for your
recommendation. The most reasonable recommendation would be to:
A. Increase sertraline
B. Add fluoxetine
C. Switch to amitriptyline
D. Change to venlafaxine
E. Decrease sertraline - ANSWER D
Which of the following is a dangerous combination?
A. MAOI-lorazepam
B. MAOI-acetaminophen
C. MAOI-meperidine
D. MAOI-ziprasidone - ANSWER C
NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Test 1 Week 4 With 100% Verified Answers
, NSG 533
A 23-year-old married white woman comes to the outpatient psychiatric clinic complaining
of decreased sleep, decreased appetite, decreased concentration, depressed mood,
thoughts of death, and lack of interest in activities for 6 weeks' duration. She has no
history of psychiatric illness and takes no medications except for Ortho-Tri Cyclen Lo
daily. Based upon the patients symptoms, choose the best medication to treat this patient.
A. Nefazodone 100 mg po twice daily
B. Paroxetine 20 mg po daily
C. St. John's wort 300 mg po three times daily
D. Amitriptyline 25 mg at bedtime - ANSWER B
A 36-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for a severe methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus diabetic foot infection and is started on linezolid 600 mg IV every 12 hours. His
medication profile includes paroxetine 40 mg every morning, trazodone 100 mg at bedtime as
needed for sleep, and metformin 1000 mg po twice daily. After 3 days on these medications,
the patient becomes agitated, confused, and diaphoretic and develops myoclonic jerks.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Overdose of metformin
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Serotonin syndrome - ANSWER D
A 46-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric outpatient clinic for follow-up treatment of
major depression. She is currently on paroxetine 10 mg at bedtime, which she started taking 2
months ago when admitted to the psychiatric hospital for suicidal ideation. During the interview,
she says that she does not think the medication is working because she is just as depressed as
she was before taking the medication and has recently started drinking eight to 10 beers daily to
alleviate the depression. Before this episode, she was sober for 4 years. Which of the following
treatment strategies would be the appropriate choice for this patient?
A. Stop the paroxetine and start nefazodone 100 mg po twice daily
B. Increase the dose of paroxetine to 20 mg po at bedtime
C. Stop the paroxetine and start duloxetine 20 mg/day
D. Continue the paroxetine at them same dose for a longer period of time to evaluate whether
she will respond or not - ANSWER B
Which of the following is a flaw in the monoamine hypothesis of depression?
A. Concentrations of neurotransmitters are reduced in the synaptic cleft
B. A switch to a different class of antidepressants does not improve response
C. Antidepressant response is associated with a therapeutic level of the medication
D. Antidepressant effects on neurotransmitters do not temporally correspond to response. -
ANSWER D
NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Test 1 Week 4 With 100% Verified Answers
