OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NUR 505 Exam 3 2026/2027 – Verified
Questions & Correct Answers with
Rationales | Graduate Nursing Guide
Graduate Nursing Guide — 2026/2027 Official Exam
A+ Verified Difficulty Format
Edition: 2026/2027 Graduate-level nursing Multiple Choice
Passing Score: 80% Analysis/Evaluation focus 4 Options (A-D)
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTIONS COVERED
Section 1: Advanced Pathophysiology & Pharmacology
Questions 1–10 | Topics: Cardiovascular pharmacology, diabetes management, psychiatric medications,
anticoagulation, immunomodulatory therapy, nephrology, perioperative care, oncology
Section 2: Evidence-Based Practice & Research
Questions 11–20 | Topics: RCT design, meta-analysis interpretation, diagnostic accuracy,
mixed methods, guideline appraisal, implementation science, observational study validity
Section 3: Health Policy, Ethics & Leadership
Questions 21–30 | Topics: Social justice, scope of practice, just culture, AI ethics, HIPAA privacy,
Magnet designation, vaccine policy, staffing models, shared decision-making
Section 4: Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning
Questions 31–40 | Topics: Dysphagia evaluation, vasospastic angina, infective endocarditis,
thyroid disorders, ectopic pregnancy, lung cancer staging, migraine prophylaxis, cirrhosis, aortic dissection
Section 5: Population Health & Epidemiology
Questions 41–50 | Topics: Outbreak investigation, attributable risk, case-control studies,
health disparities, screening test evaluation, social ecological model, herd immunity, disease clusters
Advanced Pathophysiology & Pharmacology
Question 1
A 68-year-old male with Type 2 diabetes presents with a hemoglobin A1c of 9.2% despite adherence to
metformin 1000 mg twice daily. His eGFR is 52 mL/min/1.73m², and he has a history of myocardial
infarction two years ago. The provider is considering adding a second agent to optimize glycemic control.
Which pharmacologic agent would be the most appropriate addition based on current cardiovascular
outcome trial evidence and renal function considerations?
A. Glipizide
B. Empagliflozin
C. Pioglitazone
D. Acarbose
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Empagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor, has demonstrated significant cardiovascular risk reduction in patients with established
atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and Type 2 diabetes. It remains effective at eGFR levels above 45 mL/min/1.73m²
and provides both glycemic and cardioprotective benefits. Glipizide increases hypoglycemia risk, pioglitazone carries fluid
retention and heart failure concerns, and acarbose offers minimal cardiovascular benefit.
NUR 505 Exam 3 2026/2027 – Verified Questions & Correct Answers with Rationales | Graduate Nursing Guide — Page 2
, Question 2
A 54-year-old female with chronic heart failure (HFrEF, LVEF 28%) presents with worsening dyspnea and
lower extremity edema despite optimal dosing of lisinopril 20 mg daily and carvedilol 25 mg twice daily.
Her potassium is 4.8 mEq/L and creatinine is 1.4 mg/dL. Which evidence-based medication should be
added next to reduce mortality and hospitalization risk according to the most recent ACC/AHA/HFSA
guidelines?
A. Digoxin 0.25 mg daily
B. Sacubitril/valsartan (Entresto)
C. Hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate
D. Ivabradine 5 mg twice daily
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Sacubitril/valsartan is a first-line therapy for HFrEF that has demonstrated superior reduction in cardiovascular death and
heart failure hospitalization compared to ACE inhibitors alone. It should replace the ACE inhibitor rather than be added to
it. Digoxin improves symptoms but not mortality, hydralazine/isosorbide is reserved for ACE inhibitor intolerance or
African American patients, and ivabradine is indicated for patients with resting heart rate above 70 bpm on maximally
tolerated beta-blockers.
Question 3
A 42-year-old female with a history of major depressive disorder presents for follow-up after six weeks of
sertraline 50 mg daily. She reports minimal improvement in mood symptoms and continues to experience
anhedonia and early morning awakening. Her PHQ-9 score decreased from 18 to 15. What is the most
appropriate next step in pharmacologic management according to the STAR*D trial sequenced treatment
algorithm?
A. Discontinue sertraline and start venlafaxine 75 mg daily
B. Increase sertraline to 100 mg daily and reassess in 4-6 weeks
C. Add bupropion XL 150 mg daily to current sertraline
D. Discontinue sertraline and initiate electroconvulsive therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The STAR*D trial demonstrated that inadequate initial response to SSRIs should first be addressed by optimizing the
dose of the current agent before switching or augmenting. Increasing sertraline to 100 mg daily follows evidence-based
dose optimization principles. Premature switching to venlafaxine or augmenting with bupropion is reserved for confirmed
treatment failure after adequate dose and duration. ECT is indicated for severe, treatment-resistant depression.
NUR 505 Exam 3 2026/2027 – Verified Questions & Correct Answers with Rationales | Graduate Nursing Guide