NUR 504 Exam 3 - Advanced Health Assessment - 2026/2027
Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NUR 504 Exam 3 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions |
Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document for NUR 504 Advanced Health Assessment (Exam 3)
contains 250 verified questions and answers with detailed rationales. Designed for University of St.
Thomas students, it covers the latest 2026/2027 curriculum updates and clinical guidelines. Each
question is followed by a correct answer, a clear rationale explaining the reasoning, and distractor
analysis to deepen understanding. Ideal for mastering advanced assessment skills and achieving a high
score.
Abstract:
This examination resource for NUR 504 Advanced Health Assessment Exam 3 provides a rigorous review of
essential content areas, including comprehensive health history, physical examination techniques across the
lifespan, and interpretation of clinical findings. The 250 questions are aligned with the University of St. Thomas
curriculum and current evidence-based guidelines. Each item includes a thorough rationale that not only explains
the correct answer but also analyzes common errors to promote deep learning. Emphasis is placed on clinical
reasoning, differential diagnosis, and application of assessment skills in diverse patient populations. Updated for
the 2026/2027 academic year, this document ensures students are prepared for both the exam and future clinical
practice. The content reflects the latest recommendations from authoritative bodies such as the USPSTF and
AANP.
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health History & Interviewing 1-50 Comprehensive history, chief complaint, 20%
past medical history, social history, review
of systems
Physical Examination 51-110 Inspection, palpation, percussion, 24%
Techniques auscultation; head-to-toe exam; vital signs
Special Populations 111-170 Pediatric, geriatric, pregnant patients; 24%
cultural considerations
Diagnostic Reasoning & 171-210 Interpretation of findings, clinical 16%
Differential Diagnosis decision-making, common differentials
Screening & Preventive Health 211-250 USPSTF guidelines, immunization 16%
schedules, age-specific screenings
Page 1
,Q1. During cardiac auscultation, you hear a low-pitched sound in early diastole at the apex with the
bell. Which condition is most likely associated with this finding?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Ventricular hypertrophy
D. Left ventricular failure
Correct Answer: A. Mitral stenosis
Rationale: An opening snap in early diastole at the apex is characteristic of mitral stenosis. S3
(ventricular gallop) is low-pitched but occurs in mid-diastole and is associated with ventricular failure.
Aortic regurgitation produces a diastolic murmur, not an opening snap. Ventricular hypertrophy does not
produce a diastolic sound.
Why Wrong:
B - Aortic regurgitation produces a high-pitched decrescendo murmur, not an opening snap.
C - Ventricular hypertrophy is associated with S4, not an early diastolic sound.
D - Left ventricular failure may cause S3, which occurs in mid-diastole, not early diastole.
Reference: Bickley, L. S. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch.
9
Q2. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has diminished breath sounds and
prolonged expiration. Which finding on percussion is most consistent with hyperinflation?
A. Dullness over the lung bases
B. Hyperresonance throughout both lung fields
C. Flatness over the liver area
D. Tympanic sound over the left upper quadrant
Correct Answer: B. Hyperresonance throughout both lung fields
Rationale: Hyperresonance on percussion is characteristic of hyperinflation in COPD due to increased
air trapping. Dullness suggests consolidation or effusion. Flatness is extreme dullness, not typical of
hyperinflation. Tympany in the left upper quadrant is normal over the gastric air bubble.
Why Wrong:
A - Dullness indicates increased density (consolidation/effusion), not hyperinflation.
C - Flatness is not expected in hyperinflation; it suggests a solid mass or fluid.
D - Tympany over the left upper quadrant is a normal finding over the stomach.
Reference: Jarvis, C. (2026). Physical Examination and Health Assessment, 8th Ed., Ch. 19
Page 2
,Q3. During a cranial nerve assessment, a patient cannot shrug their shoulders or turn their head
against resistance. Which nerve is primarily affected?
A. CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (vagus)
C. CN XI (spinal accessory)
D. CN XII (hypoglossal)
Correct Answer: C. CN XI (spinal accessory)
Rationale: The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles,
enabling shoulder shrug and head rotation. CN IX and X are involved in gag reflex and swallowing. CN
XII controls tongue movement.
Why Wrong:
A - CN IX is involved in taste and pharyngeal sensation, not shoulder/head movement.
B - CN X innervates laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, not shoulder/head.
D - CN XII controls tongue movements, not shoulder/head.
Reference: Bickley, L. S. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch.
16
Q4. A patient reports anterior knee pain that worsens when climbing stairs. The pain is reproduced
by pressing the patella against the femur while the patient contracts the quadriceps. Which test is
positive?
A. McMurray test
B. Apprehension test
C. Patellar grind test (Clarke sign)
D. Lachman test
Correct Answer: C. Patellar grind test (Clarke sign)
Rationale: The patellar grind test (Clarke sign) involves compressing the patella into the trochlear
groove while the patient contracts the quadriceps; pain indicates patellofemoral syndrome or
chondromalacia patellae. McMurray test evaluates meniscal tears. Apprehension test assesses patellar
instability. Lachman test tests the anterior cruciate ligament.
Why Wrong:
A - McMurray test is for meniscal tears, not patellofemoral pain.
B - Apprehension test is for patellar instability, not patellofemoral compression pain.
D - Lachman test is for ACL integrity, not patellofemoral pathology.
Reference: Magee, D. J. (2026). Orthopedic Physical Assessment, 7th Ed., Ch. 10
Page 3
, Q5. During an abdominal assessment, you note a rounded, tense abdomen with bulging flanks and a
dull percussion note on the dependent side. Which maneuver best confirms the presence of ascites?
A. Blumberg sign
B. Murphy sign
C. Shifting dullness
D. Cullen sign
Correct Answer: C. Shifting dullness
Rationale: Shifting dullness is a specific sign for ascites: percussing dullness in dependent areas that
shifts when the patient rolls to the opposite side. Blumberg sign (rebound tenderness) indicates peritoneal
irritation. Murphy sign is for cholecystitis. Cullen sign is ecchymosis around the umbilicus from
intra-abdominal bleeding.
Why Wrong:
A - Blumberg sign assesses for peritonitis, not ascites.
B - Murphy sign is associated with gallbladder inflammation.
D - Cullen sign indicates retroperitoneal or intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
Reference: Jarvis, C. (2026). Physical Examination and Health Assessment, 8th Ed., Ch. 21
Q6. A patient presents with a skin lesion that is a firm, elevated, dome-shaped papule with a central
umbilication. Which viral infection is most likely?
A. Herpes simplex
B. Varicella-zoster
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. Human papillomavirus
Correct Answer: C. Molluscum contagiosum
Rationale: Molluscum contagiosum presents as umbilicated papules caused by a poxvirus. Herpes
simplex and varicella-zoster cause vesicular lesions. Human papillomavirus causes verrucae (warts),
which are not typically umbilicated.
Why Wrong:
A - Herpes simplex causes grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, not umbilicated papules.
B - Varicella-zoster causes vesicles in a dermatomal distribution, not umbilicated papules.
D - Human papillomavirus causes verrucous papules, not central umbilication.
Reference: Habif, T. P. (2026). Clinical Dermatology, 7th Ed., Ch. 8
Page 4
Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NUR 504 Exam 3 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions |
Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document for NUR 504 Advanced Health Assessment (Exam 3)
contains 250 verified questions and answers with detailed rationales. Designed for University of St.
Thomas students, it covers the latest 2026/2027 curriculum updates and clinical guidelines. Each
question is followed by a correct answer, a clear rationale explaining the reasoning, and distractor
analysis to deepen understanding. Ideal for mastering advanced assessment skills and achieving a high
score.
Abstract:
This examination resource for NUR 504 Advanced Health Assessment Exam 3 provides a rigorous review of
essential content areas, including comprehensive health history, physical examination techniques across the
lifespan, and interpretation of clinical findings. The 250 questions are aligned with the University of St. Thomas
curriculum and current evidence-based guidelines. Each item includes a thorough rationale that not only explains
the correct answer but also analyzes common errors to promote deep learning. Emphasis is placed on clinical
reasoning, differential diagnosis, and application of assessment skills in diverse patient populations. Updated for
the 2026/2027 academic year, this document ensures students are prepared for both the exam and future clinical
practice. The content reflects the latest recommendations from authoritative bodies such as the USPSTF and
AANP.
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health History & Interviewing 1-50 Comprehensive history, chief complaint, 20%
past medical history, social history, review
of systems
Physical Examination 51-110 Inspection, palpation, percussion, 24%
Techniques auscultation; head-to-toe exam; vital signs
Special Populations 111-170 Pediatric, geriatric, pregnant patients; 24%
cultural considerations
Diagnostic Reasoning & 171-210 Interpretation of findings, clinical 16%
Differential Diagnosis decision-making, common differentials
Screening & Preventive Health 211-250 USPSTF guidelines, immunization 16%
schedules, age-specific screenings
Page 1
,Q1. During cardiac auscultation, you hear a low-pitched sound in early diastole at the apex with the
bell. Which condition is most likely associated with this finding?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Ventricular hypertrophy
D. Left ventricular failure
Correct Answer: A. Mitral stenosis
Rationale: An opening snap in early diastole at the apex is characteristic of mitral stenosis. S3
(ventricular gallop) is low-pitched but occurs in mid-diastole and is associated with ventricular failure.
Aortic regurgitation produces a diastolic murmur, not an opening snap. Ventricular hypertrophy does not
produce a diastolic sound.
Why Wrong:
B - Aortic regurgitation produces a high-pitched decrescendo murmur, not an opening snap.
C - Ventricular hypertrophy is associated with S4, not an early diastolic sound.
D - Left ventricular failure may cause S3, which occurs in mid-diastole, not early diastole.
Reference: Bickley, L. S. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch.
9
Q2. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has diminished breath sounds and
prolonged expiration. Which finding on percussion is most consistent with hyperinflation?
A. Dullness over the lung bases
B. Hyperresonance throughout both lung fields
C. Flatness over the liver area
D. Tympanic sound over the left upper quadrant
Correct Answer: B. Hyperresonance throughout both lung fields
Rationale: Hyperresonance on percussion is characteristic of hyperinflation in COPD due to increased
air trapping. Dullness suggests consolidation or effusion. Flatness is extreme dullness, not typical of
hyperinflation. Tympany in the left upper quadrant is normal over the gastric air bubble.
Why Wrong:
A - Dullness indicates increased density (consolidation/effusion), not hyperinflation.
C - Flatness is not expected in hyperinflation; it suggests a solid mass or fluid.
D - Tympany over the left upper quadrant is a normal finding over the stomach.
Reference: Jarvis, C. (2026). Physical Examination and Health Assessment, 8th Ed., Ch. 19
Page 2
,Q3. During a cranial nerve assessment, a patient cannot shrug their shoulders or turn their head
against resistance. Which nerve is primarily affected?
A. CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (vagus)
C. CN XI (spinal accessory)
D. CN XII (hypoglossal)
Correct Answer: C. CN XI (spinal accessory)
Rationale: The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles,
enabling shoulder shrug and head rotation. CN IX and X are involved in gag reflex and swallowing. CN
XII controls tongue movement.
Why Wrong:
A - CN IX is involved in taste and pharyngeal sensation, not shoulder/head movement.
B - CN X innervates laryngeal and pharyngeal muscles, not shoulder/head.
D - CN XII controls tongue movements, not shoulder/head.
Reference: Bickley, L. S. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 13th Ed., Ch.
16
Q4. A patient reports anterior knee pain that worsens when climbing stairs. The pain is reproduced
by pressing the patella against the femur while the patient contracts the quadriceps. Which test is
positive?
A. McMurray test
B. Apprehension test
C. Patellar grind test (Clarke sign)
D. Lachman test
Correct Answer: C. Patellar grind test (Clarke sign)
Rationale: The patellar grind test (Clarke sign) involves compressing the patella into the trochlear
groove while the patient contracts the quadriceps; pain indicates patellofemoral syndrome or
chondromalacia patellae. McMurray test evaluates meniscal tears. Apprehension test assesses patellar
instability. Lachman test tests the anterior cruciate ligament.
Why Wrong:
A - McMurray test is for meniscal tears, not patellofemoral pain.
B - Apprehension test is for patellar instability, not patellofemoral compression pain.
D - Lachman test is for ACL integrity, not patellofemoral pathology.
Reference: Magee, D. J. (2026). Orthopedic Physical Assessment, 7th Ed., Ch. 10
Page 3
, Q5. During an abdominal assessment, you note a rounded, tense abdomen with bulging flanks and a
dull percussion note on the dependent side. Which maneuver best confirms the presence of ascites?
A. Blumberg sign
B. Murphy sign
C. Shifting dullness
D. Cullen sign
Correct Answer: C. Shifting dullness
Rationale: Shifting dullness is a specific sign for ascites: percussing dullness in dependent areas that
shifts when the patient rolls to the opposite side. Blumberg sign (rebound tenderness) indicates peritoneal
irritation. Murphy sign is for cholecystitis. Cullen sign is ecchymosis around the umbilicus from
intra-abdominal bleeding.
Why Wrong:
A - Blumberg sign assesses for peritonitis, not ascites.
B - Murphy sign is associated with gallbladder inflammation.
D - Cullen sign indicates retroperitoneal or intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
Reference: Jarvis, C. (2026). Physical Examination and Health Assessment, 8th Ed., Ch. 21
Q6. A patient presents with a skin lesion that is a firm, elevated, dome-shaped papule with a central
umbilication. Which viral infection is most likely?
A. Herpes simplex
B. Varicella-zoster
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. Human papillomavirus
Correct Answer: C. Molluscum contagiosum
Rationale: Molluscum contagiosum presents as umbilicated papules caused by a poxvirus. Herpes
simplex and varicella-zoster cause vesicular lesions. Human papillomavirus causes verrucae (warts),
which are not typically umbilicated.
Why Wrong:
A - Herpes simplex causes grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, not umbilicated papules.
B - Varicella-zoster causes vesicles in a dermatomal distribution, not umbilicated papules.
D - Human papillomavirus causes verrucous papules, not central umbilication.
Reference: Habif, T. P. (2026). Clinical Dermatology, 7th Ed., Ch. 8
Page 4
