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Master the LPN/LVN NCLEX: A Complete & Current Practice Question Bank

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Ready to take the next step in your nursing career? This extensive question bank is designed to complement the Saunders Comprehensive Review, giving you thousands of practice questions to test your knowledge and exam readiness. Covering all core nursing content—from fundamentals and pharmacology to pediatrics and leadership—this resource is the practice companion you need to master the NCLEX-PN. Each question is paired with a clear, "Saunders-style" rationale that breaks down complex topics and reinforces the "why" behind the correct answer. Turn your nursing knowledge into exam-passing skills and conquer the LPN/LVN NCLEX with confidence.

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Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Exam 2026-
2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE
(100% Latest Already Graded A+




Question 1
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen
at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Which assessment finding
indicates that the oxygen therapy is effective?
A. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
B. Pulse oximetry reading of 92 percent
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide of 55 mm Hg


Answer: B. Pulse oximetry reading of 92 percent
Rationale: The goal of oxygen therapy in COPD is to maintain oxygen
saturation between 88 and 92 percent to provide adequate tissue
oxygenation while avoiding the suppression of the hypoxic drive. A pulse
oximetry reading of 92 percent falls within this target range and
indicates effective therapy. A respiratory rate of 26 is tachypneic and
suggests continued respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles
indicates increased work of breathing and is a sign of inadequate
oxygenation or ventilation. A PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg is elevated and may

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indicate impending respiratory failure, especially in a client with COPD
who retains carbon dioxide.


Question 2
The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone secretion. Which laboratory finding is consistent
with this condition?
A. Serum sodium of 120 mEq/L
B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
C. Serum osmolality of 310 mOsm/kg
D. Urine specific gravity of 1.002


Answer: A. Serum sodium of 120 mEq/L
Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone,
leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A serum
sodium of 120 mEq/L is indicative of hyponatremia, which is the
hallmark laboratory finding in this disorder. Serum potassium is typically
unaffected in SIADH, so a value of 5.5 mEq/L suggests another process,
such as adrenal insufficiency. Serum osmolality is decreased, not
increased, in SIADH due to the excess water; 310 mOsm/kg indicates
hyperosmolality, which is not consistent. Urine specific gravity is
elevated in SIADH because the kidneys concentrate the urine in
response to ADH; a low specific gravity would be seen in diabetes
insipidus.


Question 3

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A client is prescribed furosemide for the management of heart failure.
Which food should the nurse recommend to prevent a potential side
effect of this medication?
A. Apples
B. Bananas
C. Cabbage
D. Broccoli


Answer: B. Bananas
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of
potassium, placing the client at risk for hypokalemia. Bananas are rich
in potassium and should be recommended to help maintain adequate
serum potassium levels. Apples, cabbage, and broccoli are not
significant sources of potassium and would not address this specific side
effect.


Question 4
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pancreatitis. Which laboratory
finding would the nurse expect to be elevated in the early stages of the
disease?
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum amylase
C. Serum potassium
D. Serum albumin

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Answer: B. Serum amylase
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, pancreatic enzymes are released into
the bloodstream, resulting in elevated serum amylase and lipase levels
within 24 to 48 hours of onset. Serum calcium may be decreased due to
fat necrosis and the formation of calcium soaps. Serum potassium is not
a primary indicator of pancreatitis. Serum albumin may be decreased
due to malnutrition or third-spacing, but this is not an early finding.


Question 5
A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed phenelzine. The
nurse should instruct the client to avoid which food to prevent a
hypertensive crisis?
A. Roasted chicken
B. Aged cheese
C. Green beans
D. Applesauce


Answer: B. Aged cheese
Rationale: Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that can cause a
hypertensive crisis when combined with tyramine-rich foods. Aged
cheese contains high levels of tyramine and must be avoided. Roasted
chicken, green beans, and applesauce are low in tyramine and are safe
to consume during MAOI therapy.


Question 6

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Subido en
25 de julio de 2026
Número de páginas
187
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2025/2026
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