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NUR210 (COMP) Nursing Comprehensive Exit Assessment Latest
Update Exam 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME
FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded A+
Question 1
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has a
prescription for oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which assessment
finding indicates an adverse effect of this therapy?
A) Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
B) Pulse oximetry reading of 92%
C) Patient reports a headache and drowsiness
D) Cough productive of yellow sputum
Answer: C) Patient reports a headache and drowsiness
Explanation: In patients with COPD, the primary stimulus to breathe is
hypoxemia (low oxygen levels) rather than hypercapnia (high carbon
dioxide levels). Administering high-flow oxygen can reduce the hypoxic
drive, leading to carbon dioxide retention, which can cause headache,
drowsiness, and even respiratory acidosis. A respiratory rate of 22 is
within normal limits, a SpO2 of 92% is acceptable for COPD, and
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productive cough indicates infection, not an adverse effect of oxygen
therapy.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has developed
pulmonary edema. Which position should the nurse place the patient in
to best alleviate symptoms?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) High-Fowlers
D) Trendelenburg
Answer: C) High-Fowlers
Explanation: High-Fowlers position (sitting upright at 90 degrees) uses
gravity to reduce venous return to the heart and lungs, decreasing
pulmonary congestion. This position also maximizes lung expansion,
improving oxygenation. Supine and Trendelenburg increase venous
return and worsen pulmonary edema, while prone is not indicated for
acute respiratory distress.
Question 3
The healthcare provider orders a 24-hour urine collection for a patient
suspected of having Cushing's syndrome. Which action by the nurse is
most appropriate?
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A) Save all urine voided, including the first morning void at the start
time
B) Discard the first void and begin the collection after that
C) Collect urine in a single container and refrigerate between voids
D) Keep the urine at room temperature for accurate results
Answer: B) Discard the first void and begin the collection after that
Explanation: For a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided specimen is
discarded to mark the start time. All subsequent urine for the next 24
hours is collected, including the final void at the end of the 24-hour
period. The container should be kept on ice or refrigerated to preserve
the specimen and prevent bacterial growth; room temperature can
degrade the sample.
Question 4
A patient with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. Which
side effect should the nurse teach the patient to report immediately?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Diarrhea
C) Muscle pain and weakness
D) Weight gain
Answer: C) Muscle pain and weakness
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Explanation: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, a rare but serious
complication. Symptoms include muscle pain, weakness, fatigue,
abdominal distress, and hyperventilation. Nausea and diarrhea are
common GI side effects that often subside but should be monitored;
weight loss (not gain) is sometimes seen. Lactic acidosis requires
immediate discontinuation and medical intervention.
Question 5
A patient on a psychiatric unit has been diagnosed with major
depressive disorder. Which statement by the patient indicates a need
for immediate intervention?
A) "I feel so tired all the time."
B) "I just can't seem to concentrate on anything."
C) "I don't see any point in living anymore."
D) "I have no appetite and have lost weight."
Answer: C) "I don't see any point in living anymore."
Explanation: This statement expresses suicidal ideation, which is a
psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention, including a
safety assessment, one-to-one observation, and notification of the
healthcare provider. The other statements are common symptoms of
depression but do not indicate imminent risk of self-harm.
Question 6
NUR210 (COMP) Nursing Comprehensive Exit Assessment Latest
Update Exam 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME
FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded A+
Question 1
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has a
prescription for oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which assessment
finding indicates an adverse effect of this therapy?
A) Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
B) Pulse oximetry reading of 92%
C) Patient reports a headache and drowsiness
D) Cough productive of yellow sputum
Answer: C) Patient reports a headache and drowsiness
Explanation: In patients with COPD, the primary stimulus to breathe is
hypoxemia (low oxygen levels) rather than hypercapnia (high carbon
dioxide levels). Administering high-flow oxygen can reduce the hypoxic
drive, leading to carbon dioxide retention, which can cause headache,
drowsiness, and even respiratory acidosis. A respiratory rate of 22 is
within normal limits, a SpO2 of 92% is acceptable for COPD, and
,2|Page
productive cough indicates infection, not an adverse effect of oxygen
therapy.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has developed
pulmonary edema. Which position should the nurse place the patient in
to best alleviate symptoms?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) High-Fowlers
D) Trendelenburg
Answer: C) High-Fowlers
Explanation: High-Fowlers position (sitting upright at 90 degrees) uses
gravity to reduce venous return to the heart and lungs, decreasing
pulmonary congestion. This position also maximizes lung expansion,
improving oxygenation. Supine and Trendelenburg increase venous
return and worsen pulmonary edema, while prone is not indicated for
acute respiratory distress.
Question 3
The healthcare provider orders a 24-hour urine collection for a patient
suspected of having Cushing's syndrome. Which action by the nurse is
most appropriate?
,3|Page
A) Save all urine voided, including the first morning void at the start
time
B) Discard the first void and begin the collection after that
C) Collect urine in a single container and refrigerate between voids
D) Keep the urine at room temperature for accurate results
Answer: B) Discard the first void and begin the collection after that
Explanation: For a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided specimen is
discarded to mark the start time. All subsequent urine for the next 24
hours is collected, including the final void at the end of the 24-hour
period. The container should be kept on ice or refrigerated to preserve
the specimen and prevent bacterial growth; room temperature can
degrade the sample.
Question 4
A patient with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. Which
side effect should the nurse teach the patient to report immediately?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Diarrhea
C) Muscle pain and weakness
D) Weight gain
Answer: C) Muscle pain and weakness
, 4|Page
Explanation: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, a rare but serious
complication. Symptoms include muscle pain, weakness, fatigue,
abdominal distress, and hyperventilation. Nausea and diarrhea are
common GI side effects that often subside but should be monitored;
weight loss (not gain) is sometimes seen. Lactic acidosis requires
immediate discontinuation and medical intervention.
Question 5
A patient on a psychiatric unit has been diagnosed with major
depressive disorder. Which statement by the patient indicates a need
for immediate intervention?
A) "I feel so tired all the time."
B) "I just can't seem to concentrate on anything."
C) "I don't see any point in living anymore."
D) "I have no appetite and have lost weight."
Answer: C) "I don't see any point in living anymore."
Explanation: This statement expresses suicidal ideation, which is a
psychiatric emergency requiring immediate intervention, including a
safety assessment, one-to-one observation, and notification of the
healthcare provider. The other statements are common symptoms of
depression but do not indicate imminent risk of self-harm.
Question 6
