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NUR210 Medical-Surgical Nursing Assessment Rated A+ Exam
2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE
(100% Latest Already Graded A+
1. A patient with chronic heart failure presents with worsening
dyspnea, orthopnea, and peripheral edema. Which medication class is
considered first-line therapy to reduce preload and afterload in this
patient?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Loop diuretics
Answer: B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors are foundational in heart failure
management because they decrease afterload by vasodilation and
reduce preload by decreasing venous return. These effects reduce the
workload on the failing heart. Beta-blockers are added for mortality
benefit but do not primarily reduce preload/afterload acutely. Calcium
channel blockers have negative inotropic effects and are not first-line.
Loop diuretics manage fluid overload but do not address afterload
reduction.
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2. A patient is 24 hours post-operative following an open
cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would be most concerning
for a potential complication?
A) Pain at the surgical site rated 5/10
B) Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
C) Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
D) Hypoactive bowel sounds
Answer: B) Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
Explanation: A temperature above 38°C (100.4°F) in the first 48 hours
post-surgery may indicate infection, atelectasis, or a developing
complication such as peritonitis or wound infection. Mild pain,
serosanguineous drainage, and hypoactive bowel sounds are common
and expected in the early postoperative period following abdominal
surgery.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which
laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
A) Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
B) Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
C) Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
D) Arterial pH of 7.20
Answer: D) Arterial pH of 7.20
Explanation: In DKA, severe acidosis (pH below 7.2) indicates a critical
metabolic imbalance that can lead to cardiovascular collapse and coma.
While all values listed are abnormal, the pH of 7.20 is the most
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immediate threat to life and requires rapid correction with insulin and
fluid resuscitation. Hyperkalemia and hyperglycemia are expected but
less immediately lethal.
4. A patient with end-stage renal disease is scheduled for hemodialysis.
Which vascular access is preferred for long-term dialysis?
A) Femoral vein catheter
B) Arteriovenous (AV) fistula
C) Subclavian vein catheter
D) Arteriovenous (AV) graft
Answer: B) Arteriovenous (AV) fistula
Explanation: An AV fistula is the gold standard for long-term
hemodialysis due to its low rate of infection and thrombosis, and high
blood flow rates. AV grafts and central venous catheters are
alternatives but carry higher risks of complications, especially infection
and stenosis.
5. Which finding in a patient with acute pancreatitis is most indicative
of a poor prognosis?
A) Elevated serum amylase
B) Cullen’s sign
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Epigastric pain radiating to the back
Answer: B) Cullen’s sign
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Explanation: Cullen’s sign, characterized by periumbilical ecchymosis,
indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which is a sign of severe
necrotizing pancreatitis and carries a poor prognosis. Elevated amylase,
nausea, and pain are hallmark symptoms but do not necessarily
indicate poor outcome.
6. A patient is receiving intravenous heparin for a pulmonary embolism.
The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 120 seconds. The nurse should
anticipate which order?
A) Continue current infusion rate
B) Increase the heparin infusion rate
C) Decrease the heparin infusion rate
D) Administer protamine sulfate
Answer: C) Decrease the heparin infusion rate
Explanation: The therapeutic PTT range for heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5
times the normal control (approximately 60-80 seconds). A PTT of 120
seconds indicates over-anticoagulation and risk of hemorrhage, so the
infusion rate should be decreased. Protamine sulfate is used for severe
bleeding or extremely elevated PTT.
7. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an
arterial blood gas (ABG) result showing pH 7.31, PaCO2 58 mmHg, and
HCO3 30 mEq/L. Which interpretation is correct?
A) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B) Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
NUR210 Medical-Surgical Nursing Assessment Rated A+ Exam
2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE
(100% Latest Already Graded A+
1. A patient with chronic heart failure presents with worsening
dyspnea, orthopnea, and peripheral edema. Which medication class is
considered first-line therapy to reduce preload and afterload in this
patient?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Loop diuretics
Answer: B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors are foundational in heart failure
management because they decrease afterload by vasodilation and
reduce preload by decreasing venous return. These effects reduce the
workload on the failing heart. Beta-blockers are added for mortality
benefit but do not primarily reduce preload/afterload acutely. Calcium
channel blockers have negative inotropic effects and are not first-line.
Loop diuretics manage fluid overload but do not address afterload
reduction.
,2|Page
2. A patient is 24 hours post-operative following an open
cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would be most concerning
for a potential complication?
A) Pain at the surgical site rated 5/10
B) Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
C) Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
D) Hypoactive bowel sounds
Answer: B) Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F)
Explanation: A temperature above 38°C (100.4°F) in the first 48 hours
post-surgery may indicate infection, atelectasis, or a developing
complication such as peritonitis or wound infection. Mild pain,
serosanguineous drainage, and hypoactive bowel sounds are common
and expected in the early postoperative period following abdominal
surgery.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which
laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
A) Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
B) Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
C) Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
D) Arterial pH of 7.20
Answer: D) Arterial pH of 7.20
Explanation: In DKA, severe acidosis (pH below 7.2) indicates a critical
metabolic imbalance that can lead to cardiovascular collapse and coma.
While all values listed are abnormal, the pH of 7.20 is the most
,3|Page
immediate threat to life and requires rapid correction with insulin and
fluid resuscitation. Hyperkalemia and hyperglycemia are expected but
less immediately lethal.
4. A patient with end-stage renal disease is scheduled for hemodialysis.
Which vascular access is preferred for long-term dialysis?
A) Femoral vein catheter
B) Arteriovenous (AV) fistula
C) Subclavian vein catheter
D) Arteriovenous (AV) graft
Answer: B) Arteriovenous (AV) fistula
Explanation: An AV fistula is the gold standard for long-term
hemodialysis due to its low rate of infection and thrombosis, and high
blood flow rates. AV grafts and central venous catheters are
alternatives but carry higher risks of complications, especially infection
and stenosis.
5. Which finding in a patient with acute pancreatitis is most indicative
of a poor prognosis?
A) Elevated serum amylase
B) Cullen’s sign
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Epigastric pain radiating to the back
Answer: B) Cullen’s sign
, 4|Page
Explanation: Cullen’s sign, characterized by periumbilical ecchymosis,
indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which is a sign of severe
necrotizing pancreatitis and carries a poor prognosis. Elevated amylase,
nausea, and pain are hallmark symptoms but do not necessarily
indicate poor outcome.
6. A patient is receiving intravenous heparin for a pulmonary embolism.
The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 120 seconds. The nurse should
anticipate which order?
A) Continue current infusion rate
B) Increase the heparin infusion rate
C) Decrease the heparin infusion rate
D) Administer protamine sulfate
Answer: C) Decrease the heparin infusion rate
Explanation: The therapeutic PTT range for heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5
times the normal control (approximately 60-80 seconds). A PTT of 120
seconds indicates over-anticoagulation and risk of hemorrhage, so the
infusion rate should be decreased. Protamine sulfate is used for severe
bleeding or extremely elevated PTT.
7. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an
arterial blood gas (ABG) result showing pH 7.31, PaCO2 58 mmHg, and
HCO3 30 mEq/L. Which interpretation is correct?
A) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B) Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
