ATI RN FINAL COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR 2026 Exit Exam with NGN
180 Questions Including Both Actual and
Retake Exams and Answers to Score 99%
and Above Level 3 in the New 2026
Questions and Ansẉers with rationales
2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
, Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
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1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for continuous IV
heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse
effect of this medication?
A) Petechiae on the chest
B) Pink-tinged urine
C) Elevated blood pressure
D) Ringing in the ears
Answer: A) Petechiae on the chest
Rationale: Heparin can cause thrombocytopenia, leading to bleeding
manifestations such as petechiae, purpura, and prolonged bleeding from IV
sites.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via patient-controlled
analgesia (PCA). Which of the following findings is the earliest indication of
opioid toxicity?
A) Respiratory depression
B) Pinpoint pupils
C) Drowsiness
D) Hypotension
Answer: C) Drowsiness
Rationale: Sedation always precedes respiratory depression. The nurse must
monitor the client's level of consciousness closely when using a PCA.
,3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total
parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse
include in the plan?
A) Monitor blood glucose every 8 hours.
B) Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line.
C) Increase the infusion rate if the client misses a dose.
D) Monitor the client's weight daily.
Answer: D) Monitor the client's weight daily.
Rationale: Daily weights monitor fluid status and nutritional response. TPN
must be administered via a central line, blood glucose is monitored every 4-6
hours, and the rate is never increased abruptly due to hyperglycemia risk.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal
chamber. Which of the following findings indicates the nurse should clamp the
tube?
A) Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
B) The water-seal chamber has tidaling
C) The drainage system has a crack in it
D) The client's output is 50 mL/hr
Answer: C) The drainage system has a crack in it
Rationale: If the system cracks, the nurse should clamp the tubing close to the
client's chest to prevent air from entering the pleural space (tension
pneumothorax) while a new system is obtained. Continuous bubbling indicates
an air leak, tidaling is normal, and 50 mL/hr is expected.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which
of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A) "I should take this medication with a high-potassium food like bananas."
B) "I will monitor my blood pressure daily while taking this medication."
C) "I should expect to experience a dry cough while taking this medication."
D) "I will stop taking this medication if I feel dizzy."
Answer: B) "I will monitor my blood pressure daily while taking this
medication."
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension. Clients should
monitor BP daily. ACE inhibitors retain potassium (avoid bananas), cause a
persistent dry cough (which should be reported, not expected), and dizziness
should be reported, not a reason to stop abruptly.
, 6. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is receiving
oxytocin for labor induction. Which of the following findings should the nurse
report to the provider?
A) Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds
B) Fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 110/min with minimal variability
C) Maternal blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg
D) Uterine resting tone of 20 mm Hg
Answer: B) Fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 110/min with minimal variability
Rationale: Minimal variability indicates potential fetal hypoxia or distress,
especially during an oxytocin infusion. The nurse should stop the infusion and
reposition the client.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for phenytoin. Which of
the following premedication laboratory values should the nurse report to the
provider?
A) Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
B) Platelets 150,000/mm³
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 25 mg/dL
D) Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 50 units/L
Answer: B) Platelets 150,000/mm³
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause thrombocytopenia. While 150,000 is at the
lower limit of normal, it is a critical baseline to report as the medication can
further depress platelet counts, increasing bleeding risk.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of
the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is
experiencing diabetes insipidus?
A) Urine specific gravity 1.040
B) Serum sodium 150 mEq/L
C) Blood glucose 80 mg/dL
D) Urine output 20 mL/hr
Answer: B) Serum sodium 150 mEq/L
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus causes massive diuresis of dilute urine, leading
to dehydration and hypernatremia (elevated sodium). Urine specific gravity
would be very low (<1.005), and urine output would be extremely high.
9. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for wrist
restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Tie the restraint to the movable portion of the bed frame.
PREDICTOR 2026 Exit Exam with NGN
180 Questions Including Both Actual and
Retake Exams and Answers to Score 99%
and Above Level 3 in the New 2026
Questions and Ansẉers with rationales
2026\2027 update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
, Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-rationales
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for continuous IV
heparin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse
effect of this medication?
A) Petechiae on the chest
B) Pink-tinged urine
C) Elevated blood pressure
D) Ringing in the ears
Answer: A) Petechiae on the chest
Rationale: Heparin can cause thrombocytopenia, leading to bleeding
manifestations such as petechiae, purpura, and prolonged bleeding from IV
sites.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via patient-controlled
analgesia (PCA). Which of the following findings is the earliest indication of
opioid toxicity?
A) Respiratory depression
B) Pinpoint pupils
C) Drowsiness
D) Hypotension
Answer: C) Drowsiness
Rationale: Sedation always precedes respiratory depression. The nurse must
monitor the client's level of consciousness closely when using a PCA.
,3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for total
parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse
include in the plan?
A) Monitor blood glucose every 8 hours.
B) Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line.
C) Increase the infusion rate if the client misses a dose.
D) Monitor the client's weight daily.
Answer: D) Monitor the client's weight daily.
Rationale: Daily weights monitor fluid status and nutritional response. TPN
must be administered via a central line, blood glucose is monitored every 4-6
hours, and the rate is never increased abruptly due to hyperglycemia risk.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal
chamber. Which of the following findings indicates the nurse should clamp the
tube?
A) Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber
B) The water-seal chamber has tidaling
C) The drainage system has a crack in it
D) The client's output is 50 mL/hr
Answer: C) The drainage system has a crack in it
Rationale: If the system cracks, the nurse should clamp the tubing close to the
client's chest to prevent air from entering the pleural space (tension
pneumothorax) while a new system is obtained. Continuous bubbling indicates
an air leak, tidaling is normal, and 50 mL/hr is expected.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which
of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A) "I should take this medication with a high-potassium food like bananas."
B) "I will monitor my blood pressure daily while taking this medication."
C) "I should expect to experience a dry cough while taking this medication."
D) "I will stop taking this medication if I feel dizzy."
Answer: B) "I will monitor my blood pressure daily while taking this
medication."
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension. Clients should
monitor BP daily. ACE inhibitors retain potassium (avoid bananas), cause a
persistent dry cough (which should be reported, not expected), and dizziness
should be reported, not a reason to stop abruptly.
, 6. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is receiving
oxytocin for labor induction. Which of the following findings should the nurse
report to the provider?
A) Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds
B) Fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 110/min with minimal variability
C) Maternal blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg
D) Uterine resting tone of 20 mm Hg
Answer: B) Fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 110/min with minimal variability
Rationale: Minimal variability indicates potential fetal hypoxia or distress,
especially during an oxytocin infusion. The nurse should stop the infusion and
reposition the client.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for phenytoin. Which of
the following premedication laboratory values should the nurse report to the
provider?
A) Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
B) Platelets 150,000/mm³
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 25 mg/dL
D) Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 50 units/L
Answer: B) Platelets 150,000/mm³
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause thrombocytopenia. While 150,000 is at the
lower limit of normal, it is a critical baseline to report as the medication can
further depress platelet counts, increasing bleeding risk.
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which of
the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is
experiencing diabetes insipidus?
A) Urine specific gravity 1.040
B) Serum sodium 150 mEq/L
C) Blood glucose 80 mg/dL
D) Urine output 20 mL/hr
Answer: B) Serum sodium 150 mEq/L
Rationale: Diabetes insipidus causes massive diuresis of dilute urine, leading
to dehydration and hypernatremia (elevated sodium). Urine specific gravity
would be very low (<1.005), and urine output would be extremely high.
9. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for wrist
restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Tie the restraint to the movable portion of the bed frame.
