ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit
Exam: Practice Questions with
Answers & Rationales
Question 1
A nurse is collecting data from a 4-month-old infant at a well-
child visit. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Birth weight doubled
B) Head circumference larger than chest circumference
C) Posterior fontanel closed
D) Unable to sit without support
Answe: C) Posterior fontanel closed
Rationale: The posterior fontanel should close by 6-8 weeks of
age. At 4 months, it should already be closed. If still open, this
could indicate increased intracranial pressure, hydrocephalus, or a
developmental abnormality. Birth weight doubling by 4-6 months
is expected, head circumference larger than chest is normal for
infants, and inability to sit without support is expected at this age.
Question 2
A practical nurse is reinforcing teaching about digoxin toxicity.
Which of the following is an early sign of digoxin toxicity?
,A) Hypertension
B) Tachycardia
C) Anorexia and nausea
D) Hyperkalemia
Answe: C) Anorexia and nausea
Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include anorexia, nausea,
vomiting, and visual disturbances (yellow or green halos around
lights). Bradycardia (not tachycardia) and hypokalemia (not
hyperkalemia) are also associated with toxicity. Hypotension may
occur but is not an early sign.
Question 3
A client is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which of the following
items should the nurse allow?
A) Orange juice with pulp
B) Cream of chicken soup
C) Apple juice
D) Milkshake
Answe: C) Apple juice
Rationale: A clear liquid diet includes fluids that are transparent
at room temperature, such as apple juice, broth, clear gelatin, and
plain tea or coffee. Orange juice with pulp, cream soups, and
milkshakes are not allowed on a clear liquid diet as they contain
solids or dairy products.
,Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-
sodium diet. Which food selection indicates understanding of the
teaching?
A) Canned vegetable soup
B) Grilled chicken breast
C) Pickles
D) Processed cheese
Answe: B) Grilled chicken breast
Rationale: Fresh, unprocessed meats like grilled chicken breast
are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups, pickles, and processed
cheeses are high in sodium due to preservatives and processing
methods. Clients on low-sodium diets should avoid canned,
processed, and pickled foods.
Question 5
A client who is postoperative reports pain of 8 on a 0-10 scale.
The nurse administers morphine 4 mg IV. Which of the following
is the priority assessment after administration?
A) Pain level
B) Respiratory rate
C) Blood pressure
D) Level of consciousness
, Answe: B) Respiratory rate
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse
effect of opioid administration. The priority assessment after
administering morphine is respiratory rate. While pain level, blood
pressure, and level of consciousness should also be monitored,
respiratory depression poses the greatest immediate threat to
client safety.
Question 6
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the use of a metered-dose
inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which of the following client
statements indicates understanding?
A) "I will inhale quickly after pressing the canister"
B) "I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after inhaling"
C) "I will use the spacer to deliver a higher dose of medication"
D) "I will exhale fully after inhaling the medication"
Answe: B) "I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after
inhaling"
Rationale: Clients should hold their breath for 5-10 seconds after
inhaling medication from an MDI to allow for maximum
deposition of the medication in the lungs. Inhalation should be
slow and deep, not quick. The spacer helps deliver medication
more effectively to the lungs, not a higher dose. Exhalation should
occur before inhalation, not after.
Exam: Practice Questions with
Answers & Rationales
Question 1
A nurse is collecting data from a 4-month-old infant at a well-
child visit. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Birth weight doubled
B) Head circumference larger than chest circumference
C) Posterior fontanel closed
D) Unable to sit without support
Answe: C) Posterior fontanel closed
Rationale: The posterior fontanel should close by 6-8 weeks of
age. At 4 months, it should already be closed. If still open, this
could indicate increased intracranial pressure, hydrocephalus, or a
developmental abnormality. Birth weight doubling by 4-6 months
is expected, head circumference larger than chest is normal for
infants, and inability to sit without support is expected at this age.
Question 2
A practical nurse is reinforcing teaching about digoxin toxicity.
Which of the following is an early sign of digoxin toxicity?
,A) Hypertension
B) Tachycardia
C) Anorexia and nausea
D) Hyperkalemia
Answe: C) Anorexia and nausea
Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include anorexia, nausea,
vomiting, and visual disturbances (yellow or green halos around
lights). Bradycardia (not tachycardia) and hypokalemia (not
hyperkalemia) are also associated with toxicity. Hypotension may
occur but is not an early sign.
Question 3
A client is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which of the following
items should the nurse allow?
A) Orange juice with pulp
B) Cream of chicken soup
C) Apple juice
D) Milkshake
Answe: C) Apple juice
Rationale: A clear liquid diet includes fluids that are transparent
at room temperature, such as apple juice, broth, clear gelatin, and
plain tea or coffee. Orange juice with pulp, cream soups, and
milkshakes are not allowed on a clear liquid diet as they contain
solids or dairy products.
,Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-
sodium diet. Which food selection indicates understanding of the
teaching?
A) Canned vegetable soup
B) Grilled chicken breast
C) Pickles
D) Processed cheese
Answe: B) Grilled chicken breast
Rationale: Fresh, unprocessed meats like grilled chicken breast
are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups, pickles, and processed
cheeses are high in sodium due to preservatives and processing
methods. Clients on low-sodium diets should avoid canned,
processed, and pickled foods.
Question 5
A client who is postoperative reports pain of 8 on a 0-10 scale.
The nurse administers morphine 4 mg IV. Which of the following
is the priority assessment after administration?
A) Pain level
B) Respiratory rate
C) Blood pressure
D) Level of consciousness
, Answe: B) Respiratory rate
Rationale: Respiratory depression is the most serious adverse
effect of opioid administration. The priority assessment after
administering morphine is respiratory rate. While pain level, blood
pressure, and level of consciousness should also be monitored,
respiratory depression poses the greatest immediate threat to
client safety.
Question 6
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the use of a metered-dose
inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which of the following client
statements indicates understanding?
A) "I will inhale quickly after pressing the canister"
B) "I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after inhaling"
C) "I will use the spacer to deliver a higher dose of medication"
D) "I will exhale fully after inhaling the medication"
Answe: B) "I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after
inhaling"
Rationale: Clients should hold their breath for 5-10 seconds after
inhaling medication from an MDI to allow for maximum
deposition of the medication in the lungs. Inhalation should be
slow and deep, not quick. The spacer helps deliver medication
more effectively to the lungs, not a higher dose. Exhalation should
occur before inhalation, not after.
