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TBS Phase 1 Exam Practice Test Comprehensive Practice Examination

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TBS Phase 1 Exam Practice Test Comprehensive Practice Examination Question 1 A Marine squad leader is conducting a tactical casualty evacuation during active combat operations. Which of the following correctly describes the primary distinction between CASEVAC and MEDEVAC regarding legal protections under international law? A. Both CASEVAC and MEDEVAC are equally protected under the Geneva Convention if they transport wounded personnel B. CASEVAC platforms are protected only when marked with a red cross, while MEDEVAC platforms are always protected C. MEDEVAC platforms are protected under the Geneva Convention when properly marked, while CASEVAC platforms are not afforded this protection D. Neither CASEVAC nor MEDEVAC platforms receive protection under the Geneva Convention during active combat operations Correct Answer: C Rationale: MEDEVAC platforms are specifically protected by the Geneva Convention as medical platforms/personnel when marked with the red cross or crescent and provide medical life-saving support. CASEVAC is conducted by combat aircraft or ground vehicles, provides limited or no medical support, and is NOT protected by the Geneva Convention. Question 2 During a tactical scenario, a Marine team leader must rapidly assess a wounded casualty. Which of the following represents the correct sequence for the primary survey of a casualty? A. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Shock B. Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Shock C. Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Shock D. Shock, Circulation, Breathing, Airway Correct Answer: A Rationale: The primary survey follows the “ABCs” sequence: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, and Shock. This systematic approach ensures immediate life-threatening problems are discovered and corrected in order of priority, as airway obstruction poses the most immediate threat to life. Question 3 A Marine observes that a casualty’s skin has turned pale and cyanotic, and the casualty appears confused and disoriented. Based on these findings, which of the following is the MOST likely concern? A. The casualty is experiencing severe pain B. The casualty is showing signs of significant blood loss or shock C. The casualty has sustained a minor head injury D. The casualty is experiencing normal physiological responses to combat Correct Answer: B Rationale: Pale, cyanotic skin color combined with altered level of consciousness are classic signs of inadequate circulation and oxygenation, indicating hypovolemic shock or other circulatory compromise. These are critical diagnostic signs that require immediate intervention. Question 4 A Marine is performing CPR on an unresponsive casualty. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio and rate for adult CPR? A. 15 compressions at 60 per minute, followed by 1 rescue breath B. 30 compressions at 80-100 per minute, followed by 2 rescue breaths C. 20 compressions at 100-120 per minute, followed by 3 rescue breaths D. 40 compressions at 60-80 per minute, followed by 1 rescue breath Correct Answer: B Rationale: The correct CPR cycle consists of 30 chest compressions at a rate of 80 to 100 per minute, followed by two rescue breaths. This cycle is designed to maintain adequate circulation and oxygenation during cardiac arrest situations. Question 5 A squad leader is completing a 9 Line CASEVAC request during a patrol. Which of the following items must be included in the transmission? A. Weather conditions at the pickup site B. Casualty’s military occupation specialty C. Method of marking the pickup site D. Estimated time until evacuation arrival Correct Answer: C Rationale: The 9 Line CASEVAC plan requires specific information including location, radio frequency/call sign, number of casualties by precedence, special equipment needed, number of patients by type (litter/ambulatory), security of pickup site, method of marking, patient nationality and status, and CBRN contamination. Question 6 A Marine has sustained third-degree burns to both legs from a mortar explosion. Which of the following statements accurately describes the severity of this injury? A. Third-degree burns require only basic first aid and can wait for routine evacuation B. Third-degree burns are considered life-threatening emergencies requiring immediate medical attention C. Third-degree burns are less serious than second-degree burns due to nerve damage D. Third-degree burns should be treated as priority (routine) casualties Correct Answer: B Rationale: Third-degree burns are classified as LIFE-THREATENING EMERGENCIES. These full-thickness burns destroy all skin layers and underlying tissue, leading to massive fluid loss, infection risk, and systemic complications requiring urgent medical intervention. Question 7 Which of the following represents the three triage levels used in tactical combat casualty care? A. Immediate, Delayed, Minimal B. Urgent, Priority, Routine C. Critical, Serious, Stable D. Emergency, Urgent, Non-urgent Correct Answer: B Rationale: The three triage levels in this context are Urgent, Priority, and Routine. These categories help medical personnel prioritize treatment and evacuation based on the severity of injuries and immediate threat to life. Question 8 During an engagement, a Marine feels a “popping” sensation in the chest and experiences sudden shortness of breath. The casualty’s trachea deviates to the opposite side. Which condition is MOST likely occurring? A. Simple pneumothorax B. Tension pneumothorax C. Hemothorax D. Pulmonary contusion Correct Answer: B Rationale: Tension pneumothorax occurs when air pressure within the chest cavity builds up to such a degree that the collapsed lung is pressed firmly against the uninjured lung and heart, interfering with ventilation and heart action. Tracheal deviation is a classic sign of this life-threatening condition. Question 9 A Marine must navigate through dense terrain to reach a designated objective. The Marine decides to follow an established azimuth for a specific distance without regard to terrain features. Which land navigation technique is being employed? A. Terrain association B. Combined method C. Dead reckoning D. Compass triangulation Correct Answer: C Rationale: Dead reckoning is the process of simply following an established azimuth for a specific distance without regard to terrain. This technique is one of the three basic methods of land navigation, along with terrain association and the combination method. Question 10 In tactical combat scenarios, which of the following is considered the “best medicine on the battlefield”? A. Immediate CASEVAC B. Advanced airway management C. Fire superiority D. Intravenous fluid resuscitation Correct Answer: C Rationale: Fire superiority is considered the “best medicine on the battlefield” because suppressing enemy fire is the most effective way to prevent additional casualties and allow medical personnel to safely provide care to wounded Marines.

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TBS Phase 1 Exam Practice Test


Comprehensive Practice
Examination


Question 1



A Marine squad leader is conducting a tactical casualty evacuation during
active combat operations. Which of the following correctly describes the
primary distinction between CASEVAC and MEDEVAC regarding legal
protections under international law?



A. Both CASEVAC and MEDEVAC are equally protected under the Geneva
Convention if they transport wounded personnel

B. CASEVAC platforms are protected only when marked with a red cross,
while MEDEVAC platforms are always protected

C. MEDEVAC platforms are protected under the Geneva Convention when
properly marked, while CASEVAC platforms are not afforded this protection

D. Neither CASEVAC nor MEDEVAC platforms receive protection under the
Geneva Convention during active combat operations



Correct Answer: C



Rationale: MEDEVAC platforms are specifically protected by the Geneva
Convention as medical platforms/personnel when marked with the red
cross or crescent and provide medical life-saving support. CASEVAC is
conducted by combat aircraft or ground vehicles, provides limited or no
medical support, and is NOT protected by the Geneva Convention.

,Question 2



During a tactical scenario, a Marine team leader must rapidly assess a
wounded casualty. Which of the following represents the correct sequence
for the primary survey of a casualty?



A. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Shock

B. Breathing, Airway, Circulation, Shock

C. Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Shock

D. Shock, Circulation, Breathing, Airway



Correct Answer: A



Rationale: The primary survey follows the “ABCs” sequence: Airway,
Breathing, Circulation, and Shock. This systematic approach ensures
immediate life-threatening problems are discovered and corrected in order
of priority, as airway obstruction poses the most immediate threat to life.




Question 3



A Marine observes that a casualty’s skin has turned pale and cyanotic,
and the casualty appears confused and disoriented. Based on these
findings, which of the following is the MOST likely concern?



A. The casualty is experiencing severe pain

B. The casualty is showing signs of significant blood loss or shock

C. The casualty has sustained a minor head injury

D. The casualty is experiencing normal physiological responses to combat

,Correct Answer: B



Rationale: Pale, cyanotic skin color combined with altered level of
consciousness are classic signs of inadequate circulation and oxygenation,
indicating hypovolemic shock or other circulatory compromise. These are
critical diagnostic signs that require immediate intervention.




Question 4



A Marine is performing CPR on an unresponsive casualty. What is the
correct compression-to-ventilation ratio and rate for adult CPR?



A. 15 compressions at 60 per minute, followed by 1 rescue breath

B. 30 compressions at 80-100 per minute, followed by 2 rescue breaths

C. 20 compressions at 100-120 per minute, followed by 3 rescue breaths

D. 40 compressions at 60-80 per minute, followed by 1 rescue breath



Correct Answer: B



Rationale: The correct CPR cycle consists of 30 chest compressions at a
rate of 80 to 100 per minute, followed by two rescue breaths. This cycle is
designed to maintain adequate circulation and oxygenation during cardiac
arrest situations.




Question 5



A squad leader is completing a 9 Line CASEVAC request during a patrol.
Which of the following items must be included in the transmission?

, A. Weather conditions at the pickup site

B. Casualty’s military occupation specialty

C. Method of marking the pickup site

D. Estimated time until evacuation arrival



Correct Answer: C



Rationale: The 9 Line CASEVAC plan requires specific information including
location, radio frequency/call sign, number of casualties by precedence,
special equipment needed, number of patients by type (litter/ambulatory),
security of pickup site, method of marking, patient nationality and status,
and CBRN contamination.




Question 6



A Marine has sustained third-degree burns to both legs from a mortar
explosion. Which of the following statements accurately describes the
severity of this injury?



A. Third-degree burns require only basic first aid and can wait for routine
evacuation

B. Third-degree burns are considered life-threatening emergencies
requiring immediate medical attention

C. Third-degree burns are less serious than second-degree burns due to
nerve damage

D. Third-degree burns should be treated as priority (routine) casualties



Correct Answer: B



Rationale: Third-degree burns are classified as LIFE-THREATENING
EMERGENCIES. These full-thickness burns destroy all skin layers and

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