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FUNDAMENTAL HESI EXAMS SCRIPT ALL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SURE

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FUNDAMENTAL HESI EXAMS SCRIPT ALL QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SURE

Institución
FUNDAMENTAL HESI
Grado
FUNDAMENTAL HESI

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FUNDAMENTAL HESI EXAMS SCRIPT ALL
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SURE A+
✔✔A female client asks the nurse to find someone who can translate into her native
language her concerns about a treatment. Which action should the nurse take?

A) Explain that anyone who speaks her language can answer her questions.
B) Provide a translator only in an emergency situation.
C) Ask a family member or friend of the client to translate.
D) Request and document the name of the certified translator. - ✔✔D) Request and
document the name of the certified translator

A certified translator should be requested to ensure the exchanged information is
reliable and unaltered. To adhere to legal requirements in some states, the name of the
translator should be documented (D). Client information that is translated is private and
protected under HIPAA rules, so (A) is not the best action. Although an emergency
situation may require extenuating circumstances (B), a translator should be provided in
most situations. Family members may skew information and not translate the exact
information, so (C) is not preferred.

✔✔The nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the
solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of
60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

,A) 31 gtt/min.
B) 62 gtt/min.
C) 93 gtt/min.
D) 124 gtt/min - ✔✔D) 124 gtt/min

✔✔A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours.
At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

A) 13 ml/hour.
B) 63 ml/hour.
C) 80 ml/hour.
D) 125 ml/hour - ✔✔B) 63 ml/hour

✔✔During a physical assessment, a female client begins to cry. Which action is best for
the nurse to take?

A) Request another nurse to complete the physical assessment.
B) Ask the client to stop crying and tell the nurse what is wrong.
C) Acknowledge the client's distress and tell her it is all right to cry.
D) Leave the room so that the client can be alone to cry in private. - ✔✔C) Acknowledge
the client's distress and tell her it is all right to cry

Acknowledging the client's distress and giving the client the opportunity to verbalize her
distress (C) is a supportive response. (A, B, and D) are not supportive and do not
facilitate the client's expression of feelings

✔✔Which response by a client with a nursing diagnosis of Spiritual distress, indicates to
the nurse that a desired outcome measure has been met?

A) Expresses concern about the meaning and importance of life
B) Remains angry at God for the continuation of the illness.
C) Accepts that punishment from God is not related to illness.
D) Refuses to participate in religious rituals that have no meaning. - ✔✔C) Accepts that
punishment from God is not related to illness

Acceptance that she is not being punished by God indicates a desired outcome (C) for
some degree of resolution of spiritual distress. (A, B, and D) do not support the concept
of grief, loss, and cultural/spiritual acceptance.

✔✔A client with chronic renal failure selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What
action should the nurse take?

A) Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein.
B) Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided.

,C) Suggest that the client also select orange juice, to promote absorption.
D) Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of CRF - ✔✔A)
Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein

Foods such as eggs and milk (A) are high biologic proteins which are allowed because
they are complete proteins and supply the essential amino acids that are necessary for
growth and cell repair. Although a low-protein diet is followed (B), some protein is
essential. Orange juice is rich in potassium, and should not be encouraged (C). The
client has made a good diet choice, so (D) is not necessary

✔✔A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge.
Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his
wound care after discharge? The client

A) asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
B) states he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
C) demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
D) has all the necessary supplies for wound care. - ✔✔C) demonstrates the wound care
procedure correctly

A return demonstration of a procedure (C) provides an objective assessment of the
client's ability to perform a task, while (A and B) are subjective measures. (D) is
important, but is less of a priority prior to discharge than the nurse's assessment of the
client's ability to complete the wound care

✔✔Immediate defibrillation
Explanation:
Defibrillation is used during pulseless ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and
asystole (cardiac arrest) when no identifiable R wave is present. - ✔✔You enter your
client's room and find him pulseless and unresponsive. What would be the treatment of
choice for this client?

✔✔0.24 seconds
Explanation:
In adults, the normal range for the PR is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. A PR internal of 0.24
seconds would indicate a first-degree heart block. - ✔✔Which PR interval presents a
first-degree heart block?

✔✔Sinus bradycardia is a dysrhythmia that proceeds normally through the conduction
pathway but at a slower than usual (≤60 beats/minute) rate. Sinus bradycardia is a
slower than usual (≤60 beats/minute) heart rate. - ✔✔A 66-year-old female client is
having cardiac diagnostic tests to determine the cause of her symptoms. In her follow-
up visit to the cardiologist, she is told that she has a dysrhythmia at a rate slower than
60 beats/minute. What type of dysrhythmia did the tests reveal?

, ✔✔The P wave depicts atrial depolarization, or spread of the electrical impulse from the
sinoatrial node through the atria. - ✔✔P Wave

✔✔The PR interval represents spread of the impulse through the interatrial and
internodal fibers, atrioventricular node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers. - ✔✔PR
Interval

✔✔The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. - ✔✔QRS Complex

✔✔The T wave depicts the relative refractory period, representing ventricular
repolarization - ✔✔T Wave

✔✔The duration of regular insulin is 4 to 6 hours; 3 to 5 hours is the duration for rapid-
acting insulin such as Novolog. The duration of NPH insulin is 12 to 16 hours. The
duration of Lantus insulin is 24 hours

Humalog is a rapid-acting insulin. NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. A short-acting
insulin is Humulin-R. An example of a long-acting insulin is Glargine (Lantus) -
✔✔Duration of Insulin is:

✔✔Once digested, 100% of carbohydrates are converted to glucose. However,
approximately 40% of protein foods are also converted to glucose, but this has minimal
effect on blood glucose levels - ✔✔Once digested, what percentage of carbohydrates is
converted to glucose

✔✔Immediate bystander CPR
Explanation:
The treatment of choice for v-fib is immediate bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(CPR), defibrillation as soon as possible, and activation of emergency services -
✔✔Which of the following is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation

✔✔used to treat ventricular fibrillation and unstable ventricular tachycardia -
✔✔Amiodarone

✔✔used to treat ventricular ectopy, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation -
✔✔Lidocaine

✔✔used to treat symptomatic bradycardia - ✔✔atropine

✔✔Desmopressin

Why? - ✔✔The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should
anticipate the administration of:

Escuela, estudio y materia

Institución
FUNDAMENTAL HESI
Grado
FUNDAMENTAL HESI

Información del documento

Subido en
17 de julio de 2026
Número de páginas
70
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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Preguntas y respuestas

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