NURS 6501N Exam 2 V2 | NURS 6501N
Advanced Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NURS6501N Exam 2) |
Walden University
1. A 60-year-old male presents with chest pain that occurs at rest and has been increasing in
frequency and severity. Which condition is most likely indicated by these clinical findings?
A. Stable angina
B. Silent ischemia
C. Prinzmetal angina
D. Unstable angina
Answer: D
Rationale: Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest or is
increasing in frequency, duration, or intensity. This condition indicates that a plaque has
become unstable and may lead to a myocardial infarction if not treated promptly. Unlike
stable angina, it is not relieved by rest or nitrates in a predictable fashion.
2. Which pathophysiological process is primarily responsible for the development of foam
cells in atherosclerosis?
A. Neutrophil infiltration of the tunica media
B. Platelet aggregation at the site of injury
,C. Macrophages ingesting oxidized LDL
D. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
Answer: C
Rationale: Atherosclerosis begins with endothelial injury, which allows LDL to enter the
subendothelial space where it becomes oxidized. Macrophages migrate to the site and
engulf the oxidized LDL, transforming into lipid-laden foam cells. These foam cells
accumulate to form the fatty streak, the earliest visible lesion of atherosclerosis.
3. A patient is diagnosed with right-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation would
the clinician expect to find during the physical assessment?
A. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention
B. Orthopnea
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Pulmonary edema
Answer: A
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure leads to the backup of blood into the systemic venous
circulation. This results in increased hydrostatic pressure in the systemic veins, causing
peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and jugular venous distention (JVD). In contrast,
pulmonary symptoms like orthopnea and pulmonary edema are characteristic of left-sided
heart failure.
, 4. Which type of anemia is characterized by a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12
malabsorption?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic-normochromic anemia caused by an
autoimmune-mediated deficiency of intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is essential for the
absorption of vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without B12, DNA synthesis in RBCs is
impaired, leading to the production of large, immature megaloblasts.
5. A 5-year-old child presents with a ‘barking’ cough and inspiratory stridor. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
D. Asthma
Answer: C
Advanced Pathophysiology | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NURS6501N Exam 2) |
Walden University
1. A 60-year-old male presents with chest pain that occurs at rest and has been increasing in
frequency and severity. Which condition is most likely indicated by these clinical findings?
A. Stable angina
B. Silent ischemia
C. Prinzmetal angina
D. Unstable angina
Answer: D
Rationale: Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest or is
increasing in frequency, duration, or intensity. This condition indicates that a plaque has
become unstable and may lead to a myocardial infarction if not treated promptly. Unlike
stable angina, it is not relieved by rest or nitrates in a predictable fashion.
2. Which pathophysiological process is primarily responsible for the development of foam
cells in atherosclerosis?
A. Neutrophil infiltration of the tunica media
B. Platelet aggregation at the site of injury
,C. Macrophages ingesting oxidized LDL
D. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
Answer: C
Rationale: Atherosclerosis begins with endothelial injury, which allows LDL to enter the
subendothelial space where it becomes oxidized. Macrophages migrate to the site and
engulf the oxidized LDL, transforming into lipid-laden foam cells. These foam cells
accumulate to form the fatty streak, the earliest visible lesion of atherosclerosis.
3. A patient is diagnosed with right-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation would
the clinician expect to find during the physical assessment?
A. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention
B. Orthopnea
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Pulmonary edema
Answer: A
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure leads to the backup of blood into the systemic venous
circulation. This results in increased hydrostatic pressure in the systemic veins, causing
peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and jugular venous distention (JVD). In contrast,
pulmonary symptoms like orthopnea and pulmonary edema are characteristic of left-sided
heart failure.
, 4. Which type of anemia is characterized by a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12
malabsorption?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic-normochromic anemia caused by an
autoimmune-mediated deficiency of intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is essential for the
absorption of vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without B12, DNA synthesis in RBCs is
impaired, leading to the production of large, immature megaloblasts.
5. A 5-year-old child presents with a ‘barking’ cough and inspiratory stridor. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
D. Asthma
Answer: C
