TNCC Test 2026/2027 Actual Final Exam
Test Bank | 850 Complete Expert
Questions and Correct Detailed Answers
Q1: What is the leading cause of preventable death in the trauma
patient in the prehospital environment?
A) Airway compromise
B) Ineffective ventilation
C) Secondary head injury
D) Uncontrolled external hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D) Uncontrolled external hemorrhage
Q2: The components of the primary survey in the correct order are:
A) A-B-C-D-E
B) A-B-C-D-E-F-G-H-I
C) C-A-B-D-E
D) D-A-B-C-E
Correct Answer: B) A-B-C-D-E-F-G-H-I
Q3: What does the "A" in the primary survey assessment of a trauma
patient represent?
A) Airway and Alertness with simultaneous cervical spinal stabilization
B) Assessment of vital signs
C) Administration of medications
D) Arrival of the trauma team
Correct Answer: A) Airway and Alertness with simultaneous cervical
spinal stabilization
Q4: The AVPU scale is used in the primary survey to assess which
component?
, A) Breathing
B) Circulation
C) Airway and Alertness
D) Disability
Correct Answer: C) Airway and Alertness
Q5: When should personal protective equipment (PPE) be placed?
A) During the primary survey
B) Before the arrival of the patient
C) Only if there is visible bleeding
D) After the patient is stabilized
Correct Answer: B) Before the arrival of the patient
Q6: Why is a measure of serum lactate obtained in the initial
assessment of the trauma patient?
A) To measure oxygenation and ventilation
B) To quantify the base deficit for the adequacy of cellular perfusion
C) To gauge end-organ perfusion and tissue hypoxia
D) To determine the underlying cause of shock
Correct Answer: C) To gauge end-organ perfusion and tissue hypoxia
Q7: A trauma patient is restless and repeatedly asking "where am I?"
Vital signs upon arrival were BP 100/60, HR 96, RR 24. Current vital
signs are BP 104/84, HR 108, RR 28. The patient's skin is cool and dry.
The patient is demonstrating signs of which stage of shock?
A) Compensated
B) Progressive
C) Irreversible
D) Decompensated
Correct Answer: A) Compensated
Q8: Obstructive shock in trauma is caused by:
A) Pump failure and decreased myocardial contractility
, B) Hypoperfusion due to obstruction in the vasculature or heart
C) Decreased circulating blood volume
D) Systemic vasodilation
Correct Answer: B) Hypoperfusion due to obstruction in the
vasculature or heart
Q9: Which of the following is the best measure of the adequacy of
cellular perfusion and can help predict the outcome of resuscitation?
A) End-tidal carbon dioxide
B) Hematocrit level
C) Base deficit
D) Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: C) Base deficit
Q10: What is the priority intervention for a patient with uncontrolled
bleeding from a wound to the right upper extremity?
A) Initiate two intravenous access sites
B) Place the patient on supplemental oxygen
C) Apply direct pressure to the wound
D) Use a tourniquet to control the bleeding
Correct Answer: C) Apply direct pressure to the wound
Q11: Oxygen should be administered to trauma patients at what initial
rate?
A) 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B) 4 L/min via nasal cannula
C) 10 L/min via non-rebreather
D) 15 L/min and titrate to patient needs
Correct Answer: D) 15 L/min and titrate to patient needs
Q12: What do late signs of a tension pneumothorax include?
A) Tachycardia and tachypnea
B) Tracheal deviation and jugular venous distention
, C) Increased work of breathing
D) Unilateral diminished breath sounds
Correct Answer: B) Tracheal deviation and jugular venous distention
Q13: A patient with a complete spinal cord injury in neurogenic shock
will demonstrate hypotension and which other clinical sign?
A) Tachycardia and respiratory depression
B) Bradycardia and absent motor function below the level of injury
C) Tachycardia and ipsilateral absence of motor function
D) Bradycardia and warm, dry skin
Correct Answer: B) Bradycardia and absent motor function below the
level of injury
Q14: Which of the following occurs during hypovolemic shock?
A) Increased cardiac output due to vasodilation
B) Decrease in the amount of circulating volume
C) Decrease in heart rate
D) Widening of pulse pressure
Correct Answer: B) Decrease in the amount of circulating volume
Q15: What is the key to a high performing trauma team?
A) Individual goals
B) Use of the SBAR tool
C) Identification of a single decision maker
D) Consistent communication
Correct Answer: D) Consistent communication
Q16: When obtaining a history for an injured patient, determining
energy transfer through biomechanical data helps the nurse to:
A) anticipate the types of injury that may be present.
B) decide if law enforcement should be notified.
C) determine needed laboratory tests.
Test Bank | 850 Complete Expert
Questions and Correct Detailed Answers
Q1: What is the leading cause of preventable death in the trauma
patient in the prehospital environment?
A) Airway compromise
B) Ineffective ventilation
C) Secondary head injury
D) Uncontrolled external hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D) Uncontrolled external hemorrhage
Q2: The components of the primary survey in the correct order are:
A) A-B-C-D-E
B) A-B-C-D-E-F-G-H-I
C) C-A-B-D-E
D) D-A-B-C-E
Correct Answer: B) A-B-C-D-E-F-G-H-I
Q3: What does the "A" in the primary survey assessment of a trauma
patient represent?
A) Airway and Alertness with simultaneous cervical spinal stabilization
B) Assessment of vital signs
C) Administration of medications
D) Arrival of the trauma team
Correct Answer: A) Airway and Alertness with simultaneous cervical
spinal stabilization
Q4: The AVPU scale is used in the primary survey to assess which
component?
, A) Breathing
B) Circulation
C) Airway and Alertness
D) Disability
Correct Answer: C) Airway and Alertness
Q5: When should personal protective equipment (PPE) be placed?
A) During the primary survey
B) Before the arrival of the patient
C) Only if there is visible bleeding
D) After the patient is stabilized
Correct Answer: B) Before the arrival of the patient
Q6: Why is a measure of serum lactate obtained in the initial
assessment of the trauma patient?
A) To measure oxygenation and ventilation
B) To quantify the base deficit for the adequacy of cellular perfusion
C) To gauge end-organ perfusion and tissue hypoxia
D) To determine the underlying cause of shock
Correct Answer: C) To gauge end-organ perfusion and tissue hypoxia
Q7: A trauma patient is restless and repeatedly asking "where am I?"
Vital signs upon arrival were BP 100/60, HR 96, RR 24. Current vital
signs are BP 104/84, HR 108, RR 28. The patient's skin is cool and dry.
The patient is demonstrating signs of which stage of shock?
A) Compensated
B) Progressive
C) Irreversible
D) Decompensated
Correct Answer: A) Compensated
Q8: Obstructive shock in trauma is caused by:
A) Pump failure and decreased myocardial contractility
, B) Hypoperfusion due to obstruction in the vasculature or heart
C) Decreased circulating blood volume
D) Systemic vasodilation
Correct Answer: B) Hypoperfusion due to obstruction in the
vasculature or heart
Q9: Which of the following is the best measure of the adequacy of
cellular perfusion and can help predict the outcome of resuscitation?
A) End-tidal carbon dioxide
B) Hematocrit level
C) Base deficit
D) Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: C) Base deficit
Q10: What is the priority intervention for a patient with uncontrolled
bleeding from a wound to the right upper extremity?
A) Initiate two intravenous access sites
B) Place the patient on supplemental oxygen
C) Apply direct pressure to the wound
D) Use a tourniquet to control the bleeding
Correct Answer: C) Apply direct pressure to the wound
Q11: Oxygen should be administered to trauma patients at what initial
rate?
A) 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B) 4 L/min via nasal cannula
C) 10 L/min via non-rebreather
D) 15 L/min and titrate to patient needs
Correct Answer: D) 15 L/min and titrate to patient needs
Q12: What do late signs of a tension pneumothorax include?
A) Tachycardia and tachypnea
B) Tracheal deviation and jugular venous distention
, C) Increased work of breathing
D) Unilateral diminished breath sounds
Correct Answer: B) Tracheal deviation and jugular venous distention
Q13: A patient with a complete spinal cord injury in neurogenic shock
will demonstrate hypotension and which other clinical sign?
A) Tachycardia and respiratory depression
B) Bradycardia and absent motor function below the level of injury
C) Tachycardia and ipsilateral absence of motor function
D) Bradycardia and warm, dry skin
Correct Answer: B) Bradycardia and absent motor function below the
level of injury
Q14: Which of the following occurs during hypovolemic shock?
A) Increased cardiac output due to vasodilation
B) Decrease in the amount of circulating volume
C) Decrease in heart rate
D) Widening of pulse pressure
Correct Answer: B) Decrease in the amount of circulating volume
Q15: What is the key to a high performing trauma team?
A) Individual goals
B) Use of the SBAR tool
C) Identification of a single decision maker
D) Consistent communication
Correct Answer: D) Consistent communication
Q16: When obtaining a history for an injured patient, determining
energy transfer through biomechanical data helps the nurse to:
A) anticipate the types of injury that may be present.
B) decide if law enforcement should be notified.
C) determine needed laboratory tests.
