WGU D444 Adult Health 1 Objective
Assessment | OA V1 and V2 – Questions
and Answers | 2026 Update | 100%
Correct.
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (Questions 1–
25)
1. A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 35%. This indicates:
A) Preserved systolic function
, B) Reduced systolic function (HFrEF)
C) Normal diastolic function
D) Severe valvular disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal ejection fraction (EF) is 55–70%. An EF of 35% indicates systolic heart
failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). This means the left ventricle is not pumping
effectively, and treatment focuses on afterload reduction, diuresis, and inotropic support .
2. A patient on amlodipine reports flushing and headache. What is the nurse's best
response?
A) "These are expected side effects that often improve with time."
B) "Stop the medication immediately and call 911."
C) "You are having an allergic reaction."
D) "This indicates your blood pressure is now normal."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that causes vasodilation, leading to
flushing, headache, and peripheral edema. These are common side effects that often
resolve as the body adjusts to the medication .
3. A patient with unstable angina is prescribed clopidogrel. Which teaching point
is most important?
A) "Take with grapefruit juice to increase absorption."
B) "Notify the provider if you notice black, tarry stools."
, C) "This medication will dissolve any existing clots."
D) "You will not need aspirin while taking this."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding.
Black, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding and require immediate notification of
the provider .
4. Which electrocardiogram (EKG) finding is most consistent with an acute
myocardial infarction (MI)?
A) ST-segment elevation
B) Prolonged PR interval
C) Widened QRS complex
D) Flattened T waves
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ST-segment elevation is a hallmark finding of acute myocardial infarction
(STEMI), indicating transmural ischemia requiring immediate intervention. Prolonged PR
interval suggests heart block .
5. A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 210/120 and reports severe
headache and blurred vision. The nurse recognizes this as:
A) Benign hypertension
B) Hypertensive crisis with target organ damage
C) Orthostatic hypotension
, D) Medication non-adherence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe hypertension with neurological symptoms (headache, blurred vision)
indicates a hypertensive emergency requiring immediate treatment to prevent target
organ damage .
6. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate therapeutic effect?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT). The therapeutic goal is typically 1.5–2.5 times the normal value. PT/INR is used to
monitor warfarin therapy .
7. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What should the nurse do?
A) Administer the next dose as ordered
B) Hold the dose and notify the provider
C) Administer vitamin K immediately
D) Increase the next dose
Assessment | OA V1 and V2 – Questions
and Answers | 2026 Update | 100%
Correct.
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (Questions 1–
25)
1. A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 35%. This indicates:
A) Preserved systolic function
, B) Reduced systolic function (HFrEF)
C) Normal diastolic function
D) Severe valvular disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal ejection fraction (EF) is 55–70%. An EF of 35% indicates systolic heart
failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). This means the left ventricle is not pumping
effectively, and treatment focuses on afterload reduction, diuresis, and inotropic support .
2. A patient on amlodipine reports flushing and headache. What is the nurse's best
response?
A) "These are expected side effects that often improve with time."
B) "Stop the medication immediately and call 911."
C) "You are having an allergic reaction."
D) "This indicates your blood pressure is now normal."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that causes vasodilation, leading to
flushing, headache, and peripheral edema. These are common side effects that often
resolve as the body adjusts to the medication .
3. A patient with unstable angina is prescribed clopidogrel. Which teaching point
is most important?
A) "Take with grapefruit juice to increase absorption."
B) "Notify the provider if you notice black, tarry stools."
, C) "This medication will dissolve any existing clots."
D) "You will not need aspirin while taking this."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding.
Black, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding and require immediate notification of
the provider .
4. Which electrocardiogram (EKG) finding is most consistent with an acute
myocardial infarction (MI)?
A) ST-segment elevation
B) Prolonged PR interval
C) Widened QRS complex
D) Flattened T waves
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ST-segment elevation is a hallmark finding of acute myocardial infarction
(STEMI), indicating transmural ischemia requiring immediate intervention. Prolonged PR
interval suggests heart block .
5. A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 210/120 and reports severe
headache and blurred vision. The nurse recognizes this as:
A) Benign hypertension
B) Hypertensive crisis with target organ damage
C) Orthostatic hypotension
, D) Medication non-adherence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe hypertension with neurological symptoms (headache, blurred vision)
indicates a hypertensive emergency requiring immediate treatment to prevent target
organ damage .
6. A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. Which
laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate therapeutic effect?
A) PT/INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT). The therapeutic goal is typically 1.5–2.5 times the normal value. PT/INR is used to
monitor warfarin therapy .
7. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What should the nurse do?
A) Administer the next dose as ordered
B) Hold the dose and notify the provider
C) Administer vitamin K immediately
D) Increase the next dose
