WGU D155 OA - WGU D115 OA PREP TEST
BANK WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES/ WGU D115
ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OA
PREP(NEW!)
Question 1
A 45-year-old patient is inquiring about risk factors for ovarian cancer. Which of the
following increases risk for developing ovarian cancer, after age 40?
A) Never having children
B) Use of oral contraceptives
C) Multiple pregnancies
D) Prolonged lactation
Correct Answer
A) Never having children
Several factors may increase a woman's risk for ovarian cancer, including:Age
(middle or older age)family history of ovarian cancergenetic mutation (abnormality)
called BRCA1 or BRCA2, or one associated with Lynch syndrome.Personal history of
breast, uterine, or colorectal (colon) cancer.Eastern European or Ashkenazi Jewish
background.History of endometriosisHave never been pregnant
Question 2
Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS)
Correct Answer
Progressive impairment of two or more organ systems resulting from an
uncontrolled inflammatory response to a severe illness or injury in those that have
sustained SIRS.
Page 1 of 171
,Question 3
A 68-year-old female with heart failure presents with tachycardia, S3 heart sound, and
basilar crackles bilaterally. blood pressure is 90/68, BUN is 58 mg/dL, creatinine is 2.4
mg/dL. This clinical presentation is most consistent with:
A) prerenal azotemia
B) acute glomerulonephritis
C) tubular necrosis
D) postrenal azotemia
Correct Answer
A) prerenal azotemia
Prerenal azotemia refers to elevations in BUN and creatinine levels resulting from
problems in the systemic circulation that decrease flow to the kidneys.
Question 4
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) refers to what?
A. Filtration of urine in the glomeruli of Bowman's capsule
B. Filtration of plasma per unit of time in the glomeruli
C. Amount of potassium filtered in the glomeruli
D. Amount of urine leaving the loop of Henle in the glomeruli
Correct Answer
B. Filtration of plasma per unit of time in the glomeruli
B. GFR refers to filtration of plasma per unit of time in the glomeruli
Page 2 of 171
,Question 5
The mother of an 11-year-old boy with sickle cell anemia calls on the phone because
her son woke up with a painful penile erection that will not go away. The nurse
Practitioner's most appropriate intervention is:
A) Insert a Foley catheter and measure the child's intake and output for the next 24
hours.
B) Insert a Foley catheter to obtain a specimen for urinalysis and urine for C&S
(culture and sensitivity).
C) Recommend an increase in the child's fluid intake
D) Recommend immediate referral to the Emergency department
Correct Answer
D) Recommend immediate referral to the Emergency department
In a child with sickle cell disease, the sickling of red blood cells can cause an
erection. Blood is unable to flow out of the penis because the vessels are blocked by
sickled blood cells. If the erection continues, this is called priapism. Priapism can be
very painful and is a serious often emergent condition.
Key steps in the management of sickle cell disease-associated priapism include
oxygenation, analgesics (eg, intravenous morphine), hydration, alkalization, and
exchange transfusions to increase the hematocrit value to greater than 30% and to
decrease the hemoglobin S (HbS) value to less than 30%. On occasion, a foley
catheter may be necessary for elimination
Question 6
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?
A) Infectivity
B) Virulence
C) Pathogenicity
D) Immunogenicity
Correct Answer
C) Pathogenicity
Pathogenicity refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
Page 3 of 171
, Question 7
A five-year-old child presents to a clinic with right inner thigh and groin pain that
radiates to the knee. The parents report to an advanced practice registered nurse
(APRN) that activity aggravates the pain, but rest relieves it. The APRN notes the
child's Trendelenburg gait. Radiographic examination confirms a diagnosis of Legg-
Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD).
What is the pathologic cause of this disorder?
A) Recurrent interruption of the blood supply to the femoral head
B) Insufficient blood supply to the distal patellar pole
C) Failure of ossification of the cell rows in the growth plate
D) Separation of the patella's anterior extension of the tibial epiphysis
Correct Answer
A) Recurrent interruption of the blood supply to the femoral head
Question 8
A patient has been diagnosed with cervical carcinoma in situ and asks the APN to
explain the diagnosis. What response by the APN is best?
A) It involves the full epithelial thickness of the cervix.
B) It involves abnormal cells growing on the cervix.
C) It is when cancer has spread to the peritoneum.
D) It is when only the top layer of the cervix is affected.
Correct Answer
D) It is when only the top layer of the cervix is affected.
Carcinoma in situ (CIS) is a general term for an early stage cancer. Cervical
carcinoma in situ is also referred to as stage 0 cervical cancer. It's noninvasive, which
means the cancerous cells are confined to the surface of your cervix and haven't
penetrated more deeply into the tissues.
Page 4 of 171
BANK WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES/ WGU D115
ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OA
PREP(NEW!)
Question 1
A 45-year-old patient is inquiring about risk factors for ovarian cancer. Which of the
following increases risk for developing ovarian cancer, after age 40?
A) Never having children
B) Use of oral contraceptives
C) Multiple pregnancies
D) Prolonged lactation
Correct Answer
A) Never having children
Several factors may increase a woman's risk for ovarian cancer, including:Age
(middle or older age)family history of ovarian cancergenetic mutation (abnormality)
called BRCA1 or BRCA2, or one associated with Lynch syndrome.Personal history of
breast, uterine, or colorectal (colon) cancer.Eastern European or Ashkenazi Jewish
background.History of endometriosisHave never been pregnant
Question 2
Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS)
Correct Answer
Progressive impairment of two or more organ systems resulting from an
uncontrolled inflammatory response to a severe illness or injury in those that have
sustained SIRS.
Page 1 of 171
,Question 3
A 68-year-old female with heart failure presents with tachycardia, S3 heart sound, and
basilar crackles bilaterally. blood pressure is 90/68, BUN is 58 mg/dL, creatinine is 2.4
mg/dL. This clinical presentation is most consistent with:
A) prerenal azotemia
B) acute glomerulonephritis
C) tubular necrosis
D) postrenal azotemia
Correct Answer
A) prerenal azotemia
Prerenal azotemia refers to elevations in BUN and creatinine levels resulting from
problems in the systemic circulation that decrease flow to the kidneys.
Question 4
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) refers to what?
A. Filtration of urine in the glomeruli of Bowman's capsule
B. Filtration of plasma per unit of time in the glomeruli
C. Amount of potassium filtered in the glomeruli
D. Amount of urine leaving the loop of Henle in the glomeruli
Correct Answer
B. Filtration of plasma per unit of time in the glomeruli
B. GFR refers to filtration of plasma per unit of time in the glomeruli
Page 2 of 171
,Question 5
The mother of an 11-year-old boy with sickle cell anemia calls on the phone because
her son woke up with a painful penile erection that will not go away. The nurse
Practitioner's most appropriate intervention is:
A) Insert a Foley catheter and measure the child's intake and output for the next 24
hours.
B) Insert a Foley catheter to obtain a specimen for urinalysis and urine for C&S
(culture and sensitivity).
C) Recommend an increase in the child's fluid intake
D) Recommend immediate referral to the Emergency department
Correct Answer
D) Recommend immediate referral to the Emergency department
In a child with sickle cell disease, the sickling of red blood cells can cause an
erection. Blood is unable to flow out of the penis because the vessels are blocked by
sickled blood cells. If the erection continues, this is called priapism. Priapism can be
very painful and is a serious often emergent condition.
Key steps in the management of sickle cell disease-associated priapism include
oxygenation, analgesics (eg, intravenous morphine), hydration, alkalization, and
exchange transfusions to increase the hematocrit value to greater than 30% and to
decrease the hemoglobin S (HbS) value to less than 30%. On occasion, a foley
catheter may be necessary for elimination
Question 6
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?
A) Infectivity
B) Virulence
C) Pathogenicity
D) Immunogenicity
Correct Answer
C) Pathogenicity
Pathogenicity refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
Page 3 of 171
, Question 7
A five-year-old child presents to a clinic with right inner thigh and groin pain that
radiates to the knee. The parents report to an advanced practice registered nurse
(APRN) that activity aggravates the pain, but rest relieves it. The APRN notes the
child's Trendelenburg gait. Radiographic examination confirms a diagnosis of Legg-
Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD).
What is the pathologic cause of this disorder?
A) Recurrent interruption of the blood supply to the femoral head
B) Insufficient blood supply to the distal patellar pole
C) Failure of ossification of the cell rows in the growth plate
D) Separation of the patella's anterior extension of the tibial epiphysis
Correct Answer
A) Recurrent interruption of the blood supply to the femoral head
Question 8
A patient has been diagnosed with cervical carcinoma in situ and asks the APN to
explain the diagnosis. What response by the APN is best?
A) It involves the full epithelial thickness of the cervix.
B) It involves abnormal cells growing on the cervix.
C) It is when cancer has spread to the peritoneum.
D) It is when only the top layer of the cervix is affected.
Correct Answer
D) It is when only the top layer of the cervix is affected.
Carcinoma in situ (CIS) is a general term for an early stage cancer. Cervical
carcinoma in situ is also referred to as stage 0 cervical cancer. It's noninvasive, which
means the cancerous cells are confined to the surface of your cervix and haven't
penetrated more deeply into the tissues.
Page 4 of 171
