NUR 6001 Exams 1–3 – Advanced Health Assessment
EXAM with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale
Updated 2026 A+/Instant Download PDF
Table of Contents
1. Foundations of Advanced Health Assessment and Clinical Reasoning
2. Assessment of Skin, Hair, and Nails
3. Assessment of Head, Neck, and Lymphatics
4. Cardiovascular and Peripheral Vascular Assessment
5. Respiratory and Thoracic Assessment
6. Abdominal and Gastrointestinal Assessment
7. Neurological and Musculoskeletal Assessment
1. A 45-year-old patient presents with a localized area of skin inflammation characterized by a
central clearing surrounded by a red ring. Upon assessment, the clinician notes the lesion is
annular and has a scaly border. Which assessment finding would most likely confirm the
suspected diagnosis of tinea corporis?
A. Positive Wood’s lamp examination revealing blue-green fluorescence
B. Presence of satellite lesions in the surrounding intertriginous areas
C. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings showing branching hyphae
D. Increased local skin temperature with associated purulent exudate
Answer: C
, Rationale: Microscopic examination with potassium hydroxide (KOH) showing branching
hyphae is the definitive diagnostic method for dermatophyte infections. Wood’s lamp (A) is used
for specific fungal or bacterial infections like tinea capitis or erythrasma but is not diagnostic
for tinea corporis. Satellite lesions (B) are characteristic of Candida infections, not
dermatophytes. Purulent exudate (D) suggests a secondary bacterial infection rather than a
primary dermatophyte presentation.
CORRECT ANSWER : C
2. A patient reports a sudden onset of "a curtain coming down" over their left eye. Funduscopic
examination reveals a gray, billowing retina in the superior temporal quadrant. What is the most
appropriate initial action?
A. Administer topical corticosteroids and refer for outpatient follow-up
B. Immediate referral to an ophthalmologist for surgical intervention
C. Perform an urgent tonometry to rule out acute angle-closure glaucoma
D. Order a carotid ultrasound to evaluate for embolic phenomenon
Answer: B
Rationale: The description is classic for a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment, which is a
medical emergency requiring urgent surgical repair to prevent permanent vision loss.
Corticosteroids (A) are contraindicated as they do not address the detachment. Tonometry (C) is
for glaucoma, which presents with different symptoms. Carotid ultrasound (D) is indicated for
amaurosis fugax, not retinal detachment.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
3. During an examination of a patient with suspected congestive heart failure, the clinician
identifies a heart sound occurring in early diastole, immediately after S2. The sound is low-
pitched and best heard at the apex with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position. This
finding is most consistent with:
A. An S4 gallop indicating decreased ventricular compliance
B. An S3 gallop indicating increased ventricular filling pressure
C. A mid-systolic click indicative of mitral valve prolapse
D. A friction rub secondary to acute pericarditis
Answer: B
, Rationale: An S3 gallop is a low-frequency sound occurring in early diastole caused by the rapid
filling of a stiff or dilated ventricle, often seen in heart failure. S4 (A) occurs in late diastole due
to atrial contraction into a non-compliant ventricle. A systolic click (C) occurs during systole,
and a friction rub (D) is a high-pitched, scratchy sound throughout the cardiac cycle.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
4. When assessing the cranial nerves of a patient presenting with an asymmetric smile and an
inability to wrinkle the forehead on the affected side, which nerve is implicated?
A. Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
B. Facial nerve (CN VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
D. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Answer: B
Rationale: The facial nerve (CN VII) controls all muscles of facial expression, including those
for smiling and forehead wrinkling. If the forehead cannot be wrinkled, it suggests a peripheral
(lower motor neuron) lesion of the facial nerve (Bell’s palsy). CN V (A) involves facial sensation
and mastication. CN IX (C) and XII (D) are involved in swallowing and tongue movement,
respectively.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
5. A patient presents with generalized abdominal pain that initially started in the periumbilical
region and has now localized to the right lower quadrant. Which physical examination maneuver
would be most sensitive for confirming appendicitis?
A. McBurney’s point tenderness
B. Murphy’s sign
C. Blumberg’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign
Answer: A
Rationale: McBurney’s point tenderness is the hallmark localized sign of appendicitis. Murphy’s
sign (B) is associated with cholecystitis. Blumberg’s sign (C) indicates rebound tenderness
(peritoneal irritation). Rovsing’s sign (D) is when RLQ pain occurs upon palpation of the LLQ,
which can support the diagnosis but is not as primary as McBurney’s point.
, CORRECT ANSWER : A
6. During pulmonary assessment, a clinician detects egophony in the right lower lobe. What does
this finding indicate?
A. Air-filled lungs with normal consolidation
B. Lobar consolidation or fluid-filled lung tissue
C. A large pneumothorax resulting in collapsed lung
D. Severe emphysematous changes in the alveolar walls
Answer: B
Rationale: Egophony (the "E" to "A" change) occurs when sound travels more effectively
through dense, consolidated tissue than through air-filled lung, indicating pneumonia or pleural
effusion. Air-filled lungs (A) would not produce this finding. A pneumothorax (C) would show
absent breath sounds. Emphysema (D) results in decreased resonance and sound transmission.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
7. A 60-year-old patient exhibits a resting tremor, bradykinesia, and "cogwheel" rigidity. Which
neuroanatomical structure is primarily degenerated in this condition?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebral cortex
C. Substantia nigra
D. Hippocampus
Answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms are classic for Parkinson’s disease, which involves the degeneration
of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. The cerebellum (A)
is responsible for coordination. The cortex (B) is involved in cognition/motor planning. The
hippocampus (D) is associated with memory.
CORRECT ANSWER : C
8. While examining a patient’s peripheral vascular status, the clinician identifies an ulcer that is
shallow, moist, and located on the medial malleolus with associated hyperpigmentation of the
surrounding skin. This is most characteristic of:
EXAM with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale
Updated 2026 A+/Instant Download PDF
Table of Contents
1. Foundations of Advanced Health Assessment and Clinical Reasoning
2. Assessment of Skin, Hair, and Nails
3. Assessment of Head, Neck, and Lymphatics
4. Cardiovascular and Peripheral Vascular Assessment
5. Respiratory and Thoracic Assessment
6. Abdominal and Gastrointestinal Assessment
7. Neurological and Musculoskeletal Assessment
1. A 45-year-old patient presents with a localized area of skin inflammation characterized by a
central clearing surrounded by a red ring. Upon assessment, the clinician notes the lesion is
annular and has a scaly border. Which assessment finding would most likely confirm the
suspected diagnosis of tinea corporis?
A. Positive Wood’s lamp examination revealing blue-green fluorescence
B. Presence of satellite lesions in the surrounding intertriginous areas
C. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings showing branching hyphae
D. Increased local skin temperature with associated purulent exudate
Answer: C
, Rationale: Microscopic examination with potassium hydroxide (KOH) showing branching
hyphae is the definitive diagnostic method for dermatophyte infections. Wood’s lamp (A) is used
for specific fungal or bacterial infections like tinea capitis or erythrasma but is not diagnostic
for tinea corporis. Satellite lesions (B) are characteristic of Candida infections, not
dermatophytes. Purulent exudate (D) suggests a secondary bacterial infection rather than a
primary dermatophyte presentation.
CORRECT ANSWER : C
2. A patient reports a sudden onset of "a curtain coming down" over their left eye. Funduscopic
examination reveals a gray, billowing retina in the superior temporal quadrant. What is the most
appropriate initial action?
A. Administer topical corticosteroids and refer for outpatient follow-up
B. Immediate referral to an ophthalmologist for surgical intervention
C. Perform an urgent tonometry to rule out acute angle-closure glaucoma
D. Order a carotid ultrasound to evaluate for embolic phenomenon
Answer: B
Rationale: The description is classic for a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment, which is a
medical emergency requiring urgent surgical repair to prevent permanent vision loss.
Corticosteroids (A) are contraindicated as they do not address the detachment. Tonometry (C) is
for glaucoma, which presents with different symptoms. Carotid ultrasound (D) is indicated for
amaurosis fugax, not retinal detachment.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
3. During an examination of a patient with suspected congestive heart failure, the clinician
identifies a heart sound occurring in early diastole, immediately after S2. The sound is low-
pitched and best heard at the apex with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position. This
finding is most consistent with:
A. An S4 gallop indicating decreased ventricular compliance
B. An S3 gallop indicating increased ventricular filling pressure
C. A mid-systolic click indicative of mitral valve prolapse
D. A friction rub secondary to acute pericarditis
Answer: B
, Rationale: An S3 gallop is a low-frequency sound occurring in early diastole caused by the rapid
filling of a stiff or dilated ventricle, often seen in heart failure. S4 (A) occurs in late diastole due
to atrial contraction into a non-compliant ventricle. A systolic click (C) occurs during systole,
and a friction rub (D) is a high-pitched, scratchy sound throughout the cardiac cycle.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
4. When assessing the cranial nerves of a patient presenting with an asymmetric smile and an
inability to wrinkle the forehead on the affected side, which nerve is implicated?
A. Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
B. Facial nerve (CN VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
D. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Answer: B
Rationale: The facial nerve (CN VII) controls all muscles of facial expression, including those
for smiling and forehead wrinkling. If the forehead cannot be wrinkled, it suggests a peripheral
(lower motor neuron) lesion of the facial nerve (Bell’s palsy). CN V (A) involves facial sensation
and mastication. CN IX (C) and XII (D) are involved in swallowing and tongue movement,
respectively.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
5. A patient presents with generalized abdominal pain that initially started in the periumbilical
region and has now localized to the right lower quadrant. Which physical examination maneuver
would be most sensitive for confirming appendicitis?
A. McBurney’s point tenderness
B. Murphy’s sign
C. Blumberg’s sign
D. Rovsing’s sign
Answer: A
Rationale: McBurney’s point tenderness is the hallmark localized sign of appendicitis. Murphy’s
sign (B) is associated with cholecystitis. Blumberg’s sign (C) indicates rebound tenderness
(peritoneal irritation). Rovsing’s sign (D) is when RLQ pain occurs upon palpation of the LLQ,
which can support the diagnosis but is not as primary as McBurney’s point.
, CORRECT ANSWER : A
6. During pulmonary assessment, a clinician detects egophony in the right lower lobe. What does
this finding indicate?
A. Air-filled lungs with normal consolidation
B. Lobar consolidation or fluid-filled lung tissue
C. A large pneumothorax resulting in collapsed lung
D. Severe emphysematous changes in the alveolar walls
Answer: B
Rationale: Egophony (the "E" to "A" change) occurs when sound travels more effectively
through dense, consolidated tissue than through air-filled lung, indicating pneumonia or pleural
effusion. Air-filled lungs (A) would not produce this finding. A pneumothorax (C) would show
absent breath sounds. Emphysema (D) results in decreased resonance and sound transmission.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
7. A 60-year-old patient exhibits a resting tremor, bradykinesia, and "cogwheel" rigidity. Which
neuroanatomical structure is primarily degenerated in this condition?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebral cortex
C. Substantia nigra
D. Hippocampus
Answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms are classic for Parkinson’s disease, which involves the degeneration
of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. The cerebellum (A)
is responsible for coordination. The cortex (B) is involved in cognition/motor planning. The
hippocampus (D) is associated with memory.
CORRECT ANSWER : C
8. While examining a patient’s peripheral vascular status, the clinician identifies an ulcer that is
shallow, moist, and located on the medial malleolus with associated hyperpigmentation of the
surrounding skin. This is most characteristic of:
