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Rasmussen University NUR 2755 Module 8 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC 4 Q&A | Nursing

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This document helps you master Module 8 of NUR2755 Multidimensional Care IV (MDC 4) via targeted Q&A with detailed rationales. It covers the continuum of shock (compensatory, progressive, and refractory stages), including hypovolemic, cardiogenic, distributive (septic, neurogenic, anaphylactic), and obstructive shock. You will master vasoactive medications, hemodynamic monitoring (including PAWP and CVP), fluid resuscitation, and ABG interpretation. The module also addresses sepsis, multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), and critical care concepts. Engineered to maximize retention and sharpen clinical decision-making under pressure, this test pack simplifies complex exam content, saving you valuable preparation time and ensuring you secure an A on your Module 8 assessment.

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Rasmussen University NUR 2755 Module 8 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC 4
Q&A | Nursing

1. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of shock?

A) A state of increased tissue perfusion leading to organ hyperfunction

B) A life-threatening condition resulting from inadequate tissue perfusion

C) A temporary decrease in blood pressure that resolves with fluid intake

D) A chronic condition characterized by hypertension and tachycardia



Correct Answer: A life-threatening condition resulting from inadequate tissue
perfusion



Rationale: Shock is a life-threatening condition of inadequate tissue
perfusion, leading to cellular hypoxia, anaerobic metabolism, and organ
dysfunction [10†L8-L9][10†L31-L32]. It is not a temporary condition or a state
of increased perfusion. Early recognition and intervention are critical to
prevent progression to irreversible organ damage.



2. A nurse is caring for a client in the compensation stage of shock. One of
the body's mechanisms of compensation is the action of the renin-
angiotensin-aldosterone system. What is the primary effect of this system?

A) Restores blood pressure

B) Decreases peripheral blood flow

C) Increases catecholamine secretion

D) Increases the production of antidiuretic hormone



Correct Answer: Restores blood pressure



Rationale: In the compensation stage of shock, the renin-angiotensin-
aldosterone system is activated to restore blood pressure and maintain
perfusion [5†L43-L45]. This system causes vasoconstriction and

,sodium/water retention. Catecholamine secretion and ADH production are
other compensatory mechanisms but are not the primary effect of the renin-
angiotensin-aldosterone system.



3. A client is in the progressive stage of shock with lung decompensation.
Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

A) Administration of oxygen via Venturi mask

B) Pericardiocentesis

C) Intubation and mechanical ventilation

D) Thoracotomy with chest tube insertion



Correct Answer: Intubation and mechanical ventilation



Rationale: In the progressive stage of shock, lung decompensation may
require intubation and mechanical ventilation to maintain oxygenation and
ventilation [5†L27-L30]. Oxygen via mask may not be sufficient.
Pericardiocentesis is for cardiac tamponade, and thoracotomy is not the
primary intervention for lung decompensation in shock.



4. A client is brought to the emergency department unresponsive, with an
elevated temperature and flushed skin. Physical assessment reveals a rapid,
bounding pulse. The client's workplace has had a significant increase in
staphylococcal and streptococcal infections. Labs show an elevated white
blood cell count. The nurse should suspect which type of shock?

A) Cardiogenic shock

B) Septic shock

C) Anaphylactic shock

D) Neurogenic shock



Correct Answer: Septic shock

,Rationale: Septic shock is caused by infection and is characterized by fever,
elevated WBC, flushed skin, and a rapid, bounding pulse [5†L31-L36].
Cardiogenic shock is due to pump failure, anaphylactic shock is due to
allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock is due to spinal cord injury.



5. A confused client exhibits a blood pressure of 112/84 mm Hg, a pulse rate
of 116 beats per minute, and respirations of 30 breaths per minute. The
client's skin is cold and clammy. Which action should the nurse take next?

A) Contact the admitting physician

B) Call the Rapid Response Team

C) Re-assess the vital signs

D) Administer oxygen by nasal cannula at 2 L/min



Correct Answer: Call the Rapid Response Team



Rationale: The client is showing signs of shock (tachycardia, tachypnea,
cold/clammy skin, confusion) [5†L38-L41]. The Rapid Response Team should
be activated early to intervene before the client's status evolves into a
medical emergency. Criteria for activation include systolic BP <90 mm Hg,
HR >140 or <40, RR >28 or <8, SpO2 <90%, acute change in mental status,
and staff concern.



6. A nurse is reviewing diagnostic lab work of a client developing shock.
Which laboratory result is most indicative of the type of shock?

A) Potassium: 4.8 mEq/L

B) WBC: 42,000/mm³

C) ESR: 19 mm/hour

D) Hemoglobin: 14.2 g/dL

, Correct Answer: WBC: 42,000/mm³



Rationale: An elevated WBC count (42,000/mm³) is a key indicator of
infection and suggests septic shock [5†L24-L26]. Potassium, ESR, and
hemoglobin are not specific to determining the type of shock. A markedly
elevated WBC, along with fever and other signs of infection, points toward
septic shock.



7. In the treatment of shock, which vasoactive drug results in reduced
preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart?

A) Nitroprusside

B) Dopamine

C) Methoxamine

D) Epinephrine



Correct Answer: Nitroprusside



Rationale: Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that reduces both preload and
afterload, decreasing the oxygen demand of the heart [5†L10-L13].
Dopamine and epinephrine are vasopressors that increase afterload, and
methoxamine is a pure alpha-agonist vasoconstrictor.



8. The nurse is caring for a client with shock. The nurse is concerned about
hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis. Which finding should the nurse analyze
for evidence of these conditions?

A) Red blood cells (RBCs) and hemoglobin count findings

B) White blood cell count findings

C) Arterial blood gas (ABG) findings

D) Serum thyroid level findings

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