Maternal-Newborn Nursing and Obstetric Nursing Practice
Exam Questions and Correct Answers – Updated 2026
(Graded A+) Instant Download PDF
Subject: Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Subtopic: Antepartum Assessment and Prenatal Care
Question 1
A 28-year-old G2P1 client at 30 weeks' gestation presents with a blood pressure of 166/108
mm Hg, persistent headache, blurred vision, and right upper quadrant pain. Which nursing
action is the highest priority?
A) Encourage oral fluids and reassess blood pressure in one hour.
B) Place the client in the left lateral position and notify the provider immediately.
C) Obtain a urine specimen during the next scheduled void.
D) Encourage ambulation to improve placental perfusion.
Correct Answer: B - Place the client in the left lateral position and notify the provider
immediately.
Rationale: The client demonstrates severe features of preeclampsia, including severe
hypertension, neurologic symptoms, and right upper quadrant pain suggestive of hepatic
involvement. Immediate intervention is required to reduce maternal and fetal complications.
Left lateral positioning improves uteroplacental perfusion while the provider is notified for
further evaluation and treatment. Option A delays appropriate care. Option C is important
but not the immediate priority. Option D is inappropriate because activity may worsen
maternal and fetal compromise.
Question 2
A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a pregnant client. Which result requires
immediate follow-up?
A) Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B) Platelet count 82,000/mm³
C) White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
D) Hematocrit 34%
Correct Answer: B - Platelet count 82,000/mm³
Rationale: Severe thrombocytopenia significantly increases the risk of hemorrhage and may
indicate severe preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome. Hemoglobin and hematocrit values are
,acceptable during pregnancy because of physiologic hemodilution. Mild leukocytosis is
common in pregnancy and is not necessarily abnormal.
Question 3
A pregnant client with gestational diabetes asks why frequent blood glucose monitoring is
necessary. Which explanation by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) It prevents all congenital anomalies.
B) It helps maintain glucose within target ranges, reducing maternal and fetal complications.
C) It eliminates the need for dietary modification.
D) It ensures labor will begin spontaneously.
Correct Answer: B - It helps maintain glucose within target ranges, reducing maternal and
fetal complications.
Rationale: Tight glycemic control reduces risks such as fetal macrosomia, neonatal
hypoglycemia, shoulder dystocia, and maternal complications. Congenital anomalies are
primarily associated with poorly controlled pregestational diabetes early in pregnancy.
Monitoring does not replace dietary management or determine labor onset.
Question 4
A nurse identifies variable fetal heart rate decelerations during continuous electronic fetal
monitoring. What is the most likely cause?
A) Uteroplacental insufficiency
B) Umbilical cord compression
C) Fetal hypoxia secondary to maternal hypotension
D) Fetal sleep cycle
Correct Answer: B - Umbilical cord compression
Rationale: Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate typically caused by
umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations suggest uteroplacental insufficiency.
Maternal hypotension may contribute to fetal compromise but is not the classic cause of
variable decelerations. A fetal sleep cycle causes decreased variability rather than abrupt
decelerations.
Question 5
A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports leakage of clear fluid from the vagina. What is the
nurse's priority assessment?
, A) Maternal dietary intake
B) Confirmation of rupture of membranes and fetal status
C) Maternal weight gain
D) Previous breastfeeding history
Correct Answer: B - Confirmation of rupture of membranes and fetal status.
Rationale: Suspected rupture of membranes requires prompt assessment because prolonged
membrane rupture increases infection risk and may lead to umbilical cord prolapse. Dietary
intake, weight gain, and breastfeeding history are not immediate priorities.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client about fetal movement counting. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A) "I should report a noticeable decrease in fetal movement."
B) "Fetal movement should stop near my due date."
C) "Movement counts are only needed during labor."
D) "I should count movements only after exercise."
Correct Answer: A - "I should report a noticeable decrease in fetal movement."
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal compromise and requires prompt
evaluation. Healthy fetuses continue moving throughout pregnancy, although movement
patterns may change. Kick counts are performed during pregnancy, not only during labor,
and are usually done when the fetus is most active rather than specifically after exercise.
Question 7
A client with placenta previa experiences painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing
intervention is contraindicated?
A) Monitoring fetal heart rate
B) Establishing intravenous access
C) Performing a digital vaginal examination
D) Assessing maternal vital signs
Correct Answer: C - Performing a digital vaginal examination.
Rationale: A digital vaginal examination can precipitate catastrophic hemorrhage in placenta
previa. Monitoring fetal status, maternal vital signs, and obtaining IV access are appropriate
interventions while preparing for further evaluation.
Exam Questions and Correct Answers – Updated 2026
(Graded A+) Instant Download PDF
Subject: Maternal-Newborn Nursing
Subtopic: Antepartum Assessment and Prenatal Care
Question 1
A 28-year-old G2P1 client at 30 weeks' gestation presents with a blood pressure of 166/108
mm Hg, persistent headache, blurred vision, and right upper quadrant pain. Which nursing
action is the highest priority?
A) Encourage oral fluids and reassess blood pressure in one hour.
B) Place the client in the left lateral position and notify the provider immediately.
C) Obtain a urine specimen during the next scheduled void.
D) Encourage ambulation to improve placental perfusion.
Correct Answer: B - Place the client in the left lateral position and notify the provider
immediately.
Rationale: The client demonstrates severe features of preeclampsia, including severe
hypertension, neurologic symptoms, and right upper quadrant pain suggestive of hepatic
involvement. Immediate intervention is required to reduce maternal and fetal complications.
Left lateral positioning improves uteroplacental perfusion while the provider is notified for
further evaluation and treatment. Option A delays appropriate care. Option C is important
but not the immediate priority. Option D is inappropriate because activity may worsen
maternal and fetal compromise.
Question 2
A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a pregnant client. Which result requires
immediate follow-up?
A) Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B) Platelet count 82,000/mm³
C) White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
D) Hematocrit 34%
Correct Answer: B - Platelet count 82,000/mm³
Rationale: Severe thrombocytopenia significantly increases the risk of hemorrhage and may
indicate severe preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome. Hemoglobin and hematocrit values are
,acceptable during pregnancy because of physiologic hemodilution. Mild leukocytosis is
common in pregnancy and is not necessarily abnormal.
Question 3
A pregnant client with gestational diabetes asks why frequent blood glucose monitoring is
necessary. Which explanation by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) It prevents all congenital anomalies.
B) It helps maintain glucose within target ranges, reducing maternal and fetal complications.
C) It eliminates the need for dietary modification.
D) It ensures labor will begin spontaneously.
Correct Answer: B - It helps maintain glucose within target ranges, reducing maternal and
fetal complications.
Rationale: Tight glycemic control reduces risks such as fetal macrosomia, neonatal
hypoglycemia, shoulder dystocia, and maternal complications. Congenital anomalies are
primarily associated with poorly controlled pregestational diabetes early in pregnancy.
Monitoring does not replace dietary management or determine labor onset.
Question 4
A nurse identifies variable fetal heart rate decelerations during continuous electronic fetal
monitoring. What is the most likely cause?
A) Uteroplacental insufficiency
B) Umbilical cord compression
C) Fetal hypoxia secondary to maternal hypotension
D) Fetal sleep cycle
Correct Answer: B - Umbilical cord compression
Rationale: Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate typically caused by
umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations suggest uteroplacental insufficiency.
Maternal hypotension may contribute to fetal compromise but is not the classic cause of
variable decelerations. A fetal sleep cycle causes decreased variability rather than abrupt
decelerations.
Question 5
A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports leakage of clear fluid from the vagina. What is the
nurse's priority assessment?
, A) Maternal dietary intake
B) Confirmation of rupture of membranes and fetal status
C) Maternal weight gain
D) Previous breastfeeding history
Correct Answer: B - Confirmation of rupture of membranes and fetal status.
Rationale: Suspected rupture of membranes requires prompt assessment because prolonged
membrane rupture increases infection risk and may lead to umbilical cord prolapse. Dietary
intake, weight gain, and breastfeeding history are not immediate priorities.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client about fetal movement counting. Which statement indicates
correct understanding?
A) "I should report a noticeable decrease in fetal movement."
B) "Fetal movement should stop near my due date."
C) "Movement counts are only needed during labor."
D) "I should count movements only after exercise."
Correct Answer: A - "I should report a noticeable decrease in fetal movement."
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal compromise and requires prompt
evaluation. Healthy fetuses continue moving throughout pregnancy, although movement
patterns may change. Kick counts are performed during pregnancy, not only during labor,
and are usually done when the fetus is most active rather than specifically after exercise.
Question 7
A client with placenta previa experiences painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing
intervention is contraindicated?
A) Monitoring fetal heart rate
B) Establishing intravenous access
C) Performing a digital vaginal examination
D) Assessing maternal vital signs
Correct Answer: C - Performing a digital vaginal examination.
Rationale: A digital vaginal examination can precipitate catastrophic hemorrhage in placenta
previa. Monitoring fetal status, maternal vital signs, and obtaining IV access are appropriate
interventions while preparing for further evaluation.
