JBL MODULE 2 PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS AND DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
1. A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation
at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is
screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red
and spurting from his groin area. You should:
A. ensure that his airway is patent.
B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
C. elevate his legs and keep him warm.
D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
Correct Answer: B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
Explanation: Bright red, spurting blood indicates arterial bleeding, which is life-
threatening. The immediate priority is to control the hemorrhage with direct
pressure. Airway, oxygen, and warming are secondary concerns compared to
stopping the active bleed.
2. A palpable pulse is created by:
A. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.
C. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.
D. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
Correct Answer: D. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac
contraction.
Explanation: A pulse is the palpable wave of pressure created by the left ventricle
ejecting blood into the aorta and through the arterial system. It is not simply the
pressure against the walls (C), but the physical wave of that pressure.
,3. An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus
on:
A. obtaining baseline vital signs.
B. airway, breathing, and circulation.
C. providing immediate transport.
D. gathering medical history data.
Correct Answer: B. airway, breathing, and circulation.
Explanation: The ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) are the foundation of the
primary assessment and initial care for any patient, especially one with a head
injury who is at risk for airway compromise or respiratory depression.
4. An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a
score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for
motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his
GCS score?
A. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal
extension
B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal
flexion
C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
D. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes
pain
Correct Answer: C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words,
withdraws from pain
Explanation: A GCS of 2 for eye opening = response to pain. A verbal score of 3 =
inappropriate words. A motor score of 4 = withdrawal from pain. This matches
option C perfectly.
,5. During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
A. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
B. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
C. before you load the patient into the ambulance.
D. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
Correct Answer: D. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient
contact.
Explanation: Standard precautions (gloves, eye protection, mask, etc.) must be in
place before you make any patient contact to protect yourself from potential
exposure to blood and body fluids.
6. In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent
only in certain areas, such as the:
A. forehead and face.
B. lips or oral mucosa.
C. dorsum of the hand.
D. back of the neck.
Correct Answer: B. lips or oral mucosa.
Explanation: In dark-skinned patients, cyanosis (blue/gray) or pallor may be best
assessed in the nail beds, conjunctiva, and mucous membranes (lips and oral
mucosa) where pigment is thinner.
7. Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. the patient's response to your treatment.
B. the nature of any newly identified problems.
C. whether or not the patient is deteriorating.
D. the reason why the patient called EMS.
Correct Answer: D. the reason why the patient called EMS.
Explanation: The reason the patient called EMS (the chief complaint) is
determined during the initial assessment and history taking, not during
, reassessment. Reassessment focuses on treatment effectiveness and changes in
status.
8. The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
B. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.
C. most life-threatening condition that you discover.
D. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.
Correct Answer: A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
Explanation: The chief complaint is the primary issue or symptom that prompted
the patient to seek medical help, as described in the patient's own words.
9. The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment
should take no longer than:
A. 90 to 120 seconds.
B. 30 seconds.
C. 120 to 180 seconds.
D. 60 to 90 seconds.
Correct Answer: D. 60 to 90 seconds.
Explanation: The rapid trauma assessment (or rapid secondary assessment)
should be completed in 60 to 90 seconds to quickly identify any life-threatening
injuries without delaying transport.
10. Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing?
A. Equal chest rise and fall
B. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Clear and equal breath sounds
VERIFIED ANSWERS AND DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
1. A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation
at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is
screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red
and spurting from his groin area. You should:
A. ensure that his airway is patent.
B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
C. elevate his legs and keep him warm.
D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
Correct Answer: B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
Explanation: Bright red, spurting blood indicates arterial bleeding, which is life-
threatening. The immediate priority is to control the hemorrhage with direct
pressure. Airway, oxygen, and warming are secondary concerns compared to
stopping the active bleed.
2. A palpable pulse is created by:
A. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
B. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.
C. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.
D. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
Correct Answer: D. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac
contraction.
Explanation: A pulse is the palpable wave of pressure created by the left ventricle
ejecting blood into the aorta and through the arterial system. It is not simply the
pressure against the walls (C), but the physical wave of that pressure.
,3. An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus
on:
A. obtaining baseline vital signs.
B. airway, breathing, and circulation.
C. providing immediate transport.
D. gathering medical history data.
Correct Answer: B. airway, breathing, and circulation.
Explanation: The ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) are the foundation of the
primary assessment and initial care for any patient, especially one with a head
injury who is at risk for airway compromise or respiratory depression.
4. An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a
score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for
motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his
GCS score?
A. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal
extension
B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal
flexion
C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
D. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes
pain
Correct Answer: C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words,
withdraws from pain
Explanation: A GCS of 2 for eye opening = response to pain. A verbal score of 3 =
inappropriate words. A motor score of 4 = withdrawal from pain. This matches
option C perfectly.
,5. During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
A. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
B. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
C. before you load the patient into the ambulance.
D. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
Correct Answer: D. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient
contact.
Explanation: Standard precautions (gloves, eye protection, mask, etc.) must be in
place before you make any patient contact to protect yourself from potential
exposure to blood and body fluids.
6. In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent
only in certain areas, such as the:
A. forehead and face.
B. lips or oral mucosa.
C. dorsum of the hand.
D. back of the neck.
Correct Answer: B. lips or oral mucosa.
Explanation: In dark-skinned patients, cyanosis (blue/gray) or pallor may be best
assessed in the nail beds, conjunctiva, and mucous membranes (lips and oral
mucosa) where pigment is thinner.
7. Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. the patient's response to your treatment.
B. the nature of any newly identified problems.
C. whether or not the patient is deteriorating.
D. the reason why the patient called EMS.
Correct Answer: D. the reason why the patient called EMS.
Explanation: The reason the patient called EMS (the chief complaint) is
determined during the initial assessment and history taking, not during
, reassessment. Reassessment focuses on treatment effectiveness and changes in
status.
8. The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
B. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.
C. most life-threatening condition that you discover.
D. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.
Correct Answer: A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
Explanation: The chief complaint is the primary issue or symptom that prompted
the patient to seek medical help, as described in the patient's own words.
9. The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment
should take no longer than:
A. 90 to 120 seconds.
B. 30 seconds.
C. 120 to 180 seconds.
D. 60 to 90 seconds.
Correct Answer: D. 60 to 90 seconds.
Explanation: The rapid trauma assessment (or rapid secondary assessment)
should be completed in 60 to 90 seconds to quickly identify any life-threatening
injuries without delaying transport.
10. Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing?
A. Equal chest rise and fall
B. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Clear and equal breath sounds
